Saturday, March 31, 2012

642-181 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
You have recently upgraded as follows:
From:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 5.x Cisco Unified Presence Release 1 .x
To:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 6.x Cisco Unified Presence Release 6.x
Which feature is not found in the later releases?

A. server redundancy
B. SIP PUBLISH trunk
C. calendaring via Microsoft Exchange
D. adjunct licensing
E. line appearance by user definition

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which two solutions are supported with Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows 2000
B. Microsoft Exchange 2000
C. Microsoft Live Communications Server 2005
D. Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 3
A Cisco Unified Personal Communicator is configured as follows:
as a device in Cisco Unified communications Manager Release 6.x user name is UPCXXXXX
How many user licenses are consumed when a primary phone is not set?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4


Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which is the most important issue to be aware of when bulk assigning user licensing for presence users?

A. Enable Cisco Unified Presence licensing before enabling Personal Communicator.
B. All users must beconfigureci before enabling Cisco Unifieci Presence and Cisco Unified
Personal Communicator licensing.
C. Cisco Unified Presence and Cisco Unified Personal Communicator licensing should first be
enabled on the Cisco Unified Presence server.
D. Do not license the same user in multiple clusters.

Answer: D


QUESTION 5
What type of users must be created on Cisco Unified Communications Manager when Cisco
Unified Presence users are created?

A. line-based
B. line-appearance-based
C. either line-based or line-appearance-based
D. both line-based and line-appearance-based

Answer: C


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Monday, March 26, 2012

642-176 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
In an environment in which multiple VLANs have been defined on Catalyst Express 500 switches,
which two statements are correct for ports that have been configured with the Smartport role of "IP
Phone+Desktop"? (Choose two.)

A. The ports may belong to a configurable data VLAN
B. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are not relevant.
C. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are case insensitive.
D. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are case sensitive.
E. The ports may belong to many VLANs, depending on how many PCs are connected to each
port.

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which two statements correctly identify factors to consider when configuring WAN QoS? (Choose
two.)

A. Voice traffic uses Assured Forwarding.
B. Voice traffic uses priority queuing.
C. Voice signaling traffic uses priority queuing.
D. Voice signaling traffic uses Assured Forwarding.
E. Voice signaling traffic should use priority queuing with Assured Forwarding.
F. Voice traffic should be classified in the Best Effort traffic class and use priority queuing with
Expedited Forwarding.

Answer: B,D


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What does "locking down" the router entail?


A. Prohibiting console access to the router.
B. Disabling HTTPS access to Cisco SDM.
C. Preventing any alterations to the router's running configuration.
D. Shutting down all the router's interfaces.
E. Disabling all the vulnerable services on the router.

Answer: E


QUESTION 4
During which phase of the Steps to Success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would
the Security Technology Requirements document be used to determine a customer's security
requirements?

A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Position
D. Perform
E. Design
F. Develop

Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which three of these are characteristics of UTP cable? (Choose three.)

A. It comes in eight-pair wire bindles.
B. An insulating material covers each of the individual copper wires in it,
C. The wires in each pair are wrapped around each other.
D. EMI and RFI cause only limited degradation to signals running over it.
E. It comes in seven categories.
F. It has an external diameter of approximately 0.28 inches.

Answer: B,C,D


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Friday, March 23, 2012

Cloud security registry slow to catch on

Network World - Last August the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) announced at the Black Hat security conference in Las Vegas a registry that it hoped would serve as a place for prospective cloud users to go to easily inspect and compare cloud vendors' security controls. But to date, only three companies have submitted their cloud security data, making the registry of limited use.

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The Security, Trust and Assurance Registry (STAR) is designed to index the security features of cloud providers using a 170-point questionnaire that end users are then able to peruse. Soon after the CSA announced STAR, big names such as Google, Intel, McAfee, Verizon and Microsoft all agreed to take part. So far though, Microsoft is the only one of that group to have followed through.

MORE CLOUD: Are you paying too much for cloud services?A

ROUNDUP: 10 cloud management companies to watchA

Kyle Hilgendorf, a Gartner analyst who tracks the cloud industry, is disappointed more providers have not signed up for the registry. It has the potential to provide valuable insight for end users, but only if there is a critical mass of companies in the registry, he says.

If you only have three, four or five providers, that doesn't add a whole lot of perspective on the entire market," Hilgendorf says.

CSA Executive Director Jim Reavis remains bullish on the program and says by the end of the year he expects the registry to be more complete. Several providers, he says, are in the late stages of making submissions to the registry. "Everything starts from scratch," he says.

One issue that could be holding back adoption is what information providers are willing and able to disclose. Jon Heimerl is director of security strategies at Solutionary, a managed security services provider, and one of three companies that has submitted to STAR. Mimecast, a cloud-based e-mail optimization and security service, is the third.

When filling out Solutionary's submission Heimerl says there was a fine line that had to be drawn between how much meaningful information can be divulged without creating a security risk.

"We made our best effort to answer the questions as clearly as possible without revealing too much of the secret sauce of our security protocols," he says. One way Solutionary did that is by giving general answers to some questions and encouraged interested customers to contact them if they need additional information.

For example, Heimerl says when answering a question about encryption of information, the company answered that it uses a 256-byte encryption code and device hardening methods. It did not, however, divulge exactly what those device hardening methods are.

STAR organizers say the registry is meant to be a high-level overview of cloud security practices from vendors, not to divulge information that could compromise a provider's network or consumer's data.

"The information we ask for is not to the level of detail that would create a security risk," Reavis says. Still, he admits there is a process providers must go through to balance what security information they make public. Reavis says any cloud provider has the information STAR asks for -- the question is how they choose to publicize it.

Another reason some providers may be holding back from participating in STAR, Hilgendorf says, is because they already release much of this information in different formats. Amazon Web Services, Google and others have sections of their websites dedicated to security controls. Some providers, Hilgendorf says, could be weighing the value of submitting information to the CSA's registry if the information is already made available elsewhere. There are also other security certification standards, such as the International Organization of Standards (ISO) compliance, Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance and the Federal Information Security Management Act certification (FISMA). If an organization is already FISMA compliant, Hilgendorf wonders if they would also feel a need to register with the CSA.A

Reavis says the questionnaire is loosely based on some of those certifications and asks for some of the same type of information.

Hilgendorf says it's useful information for customers. The questionnaire, which can be downloaded from the CSA's website, asks providers to answer 170 yes or no questions, and leaves space for additional comments. Topics range from compliances and certifications the providers have received, to how customer data is stored in the cloud. Other questions pertain to whether customers can access audit information of providers, and what types of audits and vulnerability tests are conducted by the provider. There are questions about how data is segmented to ensure information from multiple customers is not mixed together and there are questions about physical security of the data centers, for example. These are important questions that customers either ask, or should be asking to service providers, Hilgendorf says.

For providers, it's a way for them to prove they are serious about security, says Orlando Scott-Cowley, product marketing manager at Mimecast, one of the three companies that has submitted a STAR entry.

"Anyone can claim they're a cloud provider, but to actually make your controls available and open through this registry was important to us," he says. "We're not giving away anything proprietary about how the data is protected, but it does show to customers that we're open to talking about this."

Hilgendorf expects perhaps the registry may turn into a spot for small and mid-size providers to showcase their security controls as a way to differentiate themselves in the market. But, he says, the registry would gain true value if some of the CSA's other 130 members participate.

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Monday, March 19, 2012

642-165 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?

A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route
Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?

A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified
Communications? (Choose two.)

A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option

Answer: A,C

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified
CM Telephony group?

A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?

A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center

Answer: B

Explanation:


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Wednesday, March 14, 2012

642-162 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Which two items does the Cisco CRS 4.5 Installer always install on the system? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UnifiedCallManager
B. Java plug-in
C. Cisco UnifiedCallManager BARS Utility
D. SQL 2K Server

Answer: B,C


QUESTION 2
What are the components of the JTAPI Subsystem? (Choose three.)

A. call control groups
B. RM provider
C. trigger
D. CTI ports
E. provider
F. CMT Dialog Control Group

Answer: A,C,E


QUESTION 3
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be
executed?

A. SQL Error
B. Connection Not Available
C. Timeout
D. Successful

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)

A. DB Get
B. DB Release
C. DB Write
D. DB Read

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 5
Which three Cisco CRS upgrade paths are supported? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco CRS 2.2 to Cisco CRS 3.5
B. Cisco CRS 3.1 to Cisco CRS 4.0
C. Cisco CRS 2.2 to Cisco CRS 4.0
D. Cisco CRS 4.0 to Cisco CRS 4.5
E. Cisco CRS 4.0 to Cisco CRS 3.0
F. Cisco CRS 3.5 to Cisco CRS 4.0

Answer: A,B,F


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Tuesday, March 13, 2012

642-145 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
What is the best practice of configuring an intercom on a shared line?

A. This feature allows all endpoints to participate in intercom messages.
B. This feature can be used only when the intercomephonedn is configured as a dual line
C. This feature is not supported and should not be used
D. This feature can be supported only in a unidirectional manner.
E. This feature allows one endpoint to contact multiple endpoints simultaneously

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Using the show ccn trigger command provides the following output:cue1000#
show ccn trigger
Name: 6800Type: SIPApplication: voicemailLocale:en_US Idle Timeout: 5000Enabled: yes
Maximum number of sessions: 8Name: 6700Type: SIPApplication: autoattendant Locale:en_US
Idle Timeout: 5000Enabled: yes Maximum number of sessions: 8cue1000#
What two pieces of
information can you derive from this output? (Choose two.)

A. The number of ports available is 16
B. The operator can bereachedat extension6800
C. The voicemail pilot point number is 6800
D. The voicemail application is enabled.
E. The idle timeout is 5 seconds

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 3
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibit carefully. What type of calls
can the ephone with extension 2151 make?


Exhibit:


A. No impact on out going calls. However, in coming calls will not be permitted to extension
2151unless cor list is configured on the ephonedn
B. Only US calls
C. All calls
D. Internal and emergency calls only, because of the defaultcor restriction.
E. None

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibit carefully. A user at Acme
Co. reports that when some one leaves a voicemail message, their MWI does not light up. The
administrator has checked the MWI configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express and found that the MWI On number is 9001 and the MWI Off number is 9000. Using the
trace output from the Cisco Unity Express module, what is the problem?


Exhibit:


A. The MWI On number configuration is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express
B. The CCN subsystem SIP is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express.
C. The MWI Off Number configuration is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express
D. The SIP is misconfigured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
E. The MWI application is not enabled

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibits carefully. This proposed
configuration is meant to forward calls to extension 9999 when extension 2001is busy. Which
configuration command will most likely to be edited for this to function properly?
Exhibit #1:

Exhibit #2:


A. max registrations
B. id network mask
C. mailbox
D. voiceregisterpool

Answer: D


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Monday, March 12, 2012

642-144 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine


QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drop

.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:



Explanation:



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QUESTION 2
Which two Tel scripts make up the B-ACD? (Choose two.)

A. Call Queue
B. Auto Attendant
C. Basic Queuing
D. Direct Inward Dial
E. Automated Queuing
F. Automated Call Distributor

Answer: A,B


QUESTION 3
The Clinton Howe Weights and Measures Company wants to send CDRs to a syslog server.
Which two options are required? (Choose two.)

A. The CDR collection must be enabled from the CLI.
B. The syslog server IP address must be configured using the logging command.
C. The CDRs must be sent to the syslog server using the gw-accounting syslog command.
D. The logging file must be initialized using the logging buffered command.

Answer: B,C


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Where would a Cisco Unity Express Network Module physically reside?


A. PC at headquarters
B. PC at the remote office
C. voice-enabled router at headquarters
D. Cisco Unified CallManager publisher at headquarters
E. Cisco Unified CallManager subscriber at headquarters
F. Cisco Unified CallManager Express router at the remote office

Answer: F


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The Hamilton Hair Emporium was having difficulty hearing during conference
calls. This configuration adjustment was made, and now the company is experiencing sound
distortion. What is the cause?


A. The gain functionality applies to outbound audio packets. Distortion is created when an external
participant causes echo.
B. The distortion is unrelated to the gain functionality. Rather, it is a result of the company trying to
maintain too many conference calls at one time.
C. This functionality cannot discriminate between a local VoIP source that requires volume gain
and a CO-powered PSTN source that does not require volume gain.
D. This functionality cannot discriminate between a remote VoIP or Foreign Exchange Office
source that requires volume gain, and a remote VoIP or IP phone that does not require volume
gain.

Answer: D


QUESTION 6
The network administrator at Silver Ball GeneralCom has downloaded the cme-gui-xxx.xx.tar file
("xxx.xx" represents the version number of the file) for Cisco Unified CallManager Express. Which
file will be extracted?

A. xml.template
B. normaljjserjs
C. music-on-hold.au
D. ATA03u1uuSCCP04u211A.zip

Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two of the following must be configured to allow users to blind transfer calls to both internal
and PSTN numbers using H.450.2 supplementary services? (Choose two.)

A. transfer-pattern .T
B. transfer-system full-blind
C. supplemental service h.450.2
D. allow-connections h323 to h323

Answer: A,B


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Wednesday, March 7, 2012

642-132 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Why is it beneficial for virtual classroom instructions to know approximately how much time each
lesson within a virtual classroom session take?

A. Knowing how much time a lesson takes allows the instructor to adjust timelines if the
participants want to go deeper or need more time.
B. Participants will pay better attention because there will be less time to review.
C. The timing of each lesson can help participants understand the relative importance of each
instructional section.
D. The instructor can manage time by stopping discussions demonstrate and comments before
the participants are finished.
E. Making effective timing decisions demonstrates leadership in the virtual classroom.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which three preparation tasks help create an effective audio environment for a virtual classroom
session? (Choose three)

A. Use only a wireless internet connection.
B. Know how to make your phone.
C. Work in a space that is free of background noise.
D. Hold session in the early morning.
E. Put a “trainingin Progress” sign on your door or desk.
F. Use an unidirectional microphone

Answer: C,E,F

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Why is it important for evaluation strategies to be highly specific?

A. Virtual instructors might rationalize or make excuse for unmet learning objectives.
B. Different stakeholders in organization often have competing properties and agendas.
C. Management might reward or punish depending on post session behavior on the job.
D. It is important to be factual about what went well, what needs important, and how it will be improved.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which action is most effective if you want to gauge the ability of the group to use formulas during a
virtual classroom session in Microsoft Excel slide?

A. Share your application, using an expense report template; demonstrate how to input formulas in an Excel spread sheet.
B. Share your application, select a cell and type the first part of formula; ask participants to type the rest into chat.
C. Call on aparticipantand ask that person to verbally state what the correct formula would be; given a specific set of criteria
D. Pass control of your desktop to a participant and ask that person to type in the correct formula; ask the group to continue.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
What is a key consideration for deciding whether you should record a virtual classroom session?

A. Session recordings that are posted to a company intranet may be subject to attribute laws.
B. Participants may demand to know in advance what you plan to do with the recording.
C. Conflicts about confidentially may cause participants to be less interactive.
D. Participants may be distracted by concerns about what their recorded voice like.

Answer: A

Explanation:


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Tuesday, March 6, 2012

642-081 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
When should you enable Network Address Translation Transparency (NAT-T) on the Teleworker?

A. when a router between the Teleworker router and the head-end VPN router is doing NAT/pNAT
and does not support IPSec pass-through
B. when the Teleworker router itself is doing NAT/pNAT
C. never
D. always

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What are the DSL-specific factors that require additional bandwidth when supporting Voice-over-IP
over an IPSec VPN? Choose three.

A. ADSL typically uses PPPoE encapsulation, which adds additional overhead to each voice packet.
B. A voice packet is sent via multiple fixed-length cells; each cell has about 10% Layer-2 header overhead.
C. A voice packet is sent via multiple fixed-length cells; a portion of the last cell is padding, requiring more bandwidth.
D. ADSL carrier band requires additional bits to be carried over the wire to the DSL Access Concentrator.
E. IPSec requires additional overhead for the header and hash.

Answer: A,B,C


QUESTION 3
What method in a Cisco IOS router can confirm that packets marked for a particular QoS marking
are being matched?

A. Issue a debug qos set command and a terminal monitor command.
B. Issue a show crypto ipsec session command.
C. Assuming Netflow is enabled, issue a show ip cache verbose flow command.
D. Issue a show policy-map interface command.

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Choose the false statement concerning the use of CiscoWorks Internetwork Performance Monitor
(IPM) in a Teleworker deployment.

A. IPM should not be run on a production network.
B. The QoS service policy should contain an allocation of sufficient bandwidth in the priority queue
(LLQ) for both the SAA probe simulating a voice call and the voice call. If not, voice quality will suffer.
C. IPM contains a database that can store data on latency, jitter, and drops of voice packets over a period of weeks or months.
D. IPM helps verify if a Service Provider is meeting the Service Level Agreement.

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
It is considered a best practice to use the Dead Peer Detection (DPD) feature with which VPN
topologies?

A. all of the choices
B. EZVPN
C. IPSec with GRE
D. IPSec
E. DMVPN

Answer: A



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Saturday, March 3, 2012

642-072 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
When should you enable Network Address Translation Transparency (NAT-T) on the Teleworker?

A. when a router between the Teleworker router and the head-end VPN router is doing NAT/pNAT
and does not support IPSec pass-through
B. when the Teleworker router itself is doing NAT/pNAT
C. never
D. always

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What are the DSL-specific factors that require additional bandwidth when supporting Voice-over-IP
over an IPSec VPN? Choose three.

A. ADSL typically uses PPPoE encapsulation, which adds additional overhead to each voice packet.
B. A voice packet is sent via multiple fixed-length cells; each cell has about 10% Layer-2 header overhead.
C. A voice packet is sent via multiple fixed-length cells; a portion of the last cell is padding,
requiring more bandwidth.
D. ADSL carrier band requires additional bits to be carried over the wire to the DSL Access Concentrator.
E. IPSec requires additional overhead for the header and hash.

Answer: A,B,C


QUESTION 3
What method in a Cisco IOS router can confirm that packets marked for a particular QoS marking
are being matched?

A. Issue a debug qos set command and a terminal monitor command.
B. Issue a show crypto ipsec session command.
C. Assuming Netflow is enabled, issue a show ip cache verbose flow command.
D. Issue a show policy-map interface command.

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Choose the false statement concerning the use of CiscoWorks Internetwork Performance Monitor
(IPM) in a Teleworker deployment.

A. IPM should not be run on a production network.
B. The QoS service policy should contain an allocation of sufficient bandwidth in the priority queue
(LLQ) for both the SAA probe simulating a voice call and the voice call. If not, voice quality will suffer.
C. IPM contains a database that can store data on latency, jitter, and drops of voice packets over
a period of weeks or months.
D. IPM helps verify if a Service Provider is meeting the Service Level Agreement.

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
It is considered a best practice to use the Dead Peer Detection (DPD) feature with which VPN
topologies?

A. all of the choices
B. EZVPN
C. IPSec with GRE
D. IPSec
E. DMVPN

Answer: A


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