CCNA Qualifications ; Satisfaction Guaranteed

CCNA Qualifications ; Satisfaction Guaranteed

CCNA Security Certification
Cisco Certified Network Associate Security (CCNA Security) validates associate-level knowledge and skills required to secure Cisco networks. With a CCNA Security certification, a network professional demonstrates the skills required to develop a security infrastructure, recognize threats and vulnerabilities to networks, and mitigate security threats. The CCNA Security curriculum emphasizes core security technologies, the installation, troubleshooting and monitoring of network devices to maintain integrity, confidentiality and availability of data and devices, and competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security structure.

CCNA Security Recertification
CCNA Security certifications are valid for three years. To recertify, pass ONE of the following before the certification expiration date:

Pass any current CCNA Concentration exam (wireless, or security, or voice, or SP Ops), or
Pass any current 642-XXX Professional level exam, or
Pass the current CCDA DESGN exam, or
Pass any current Cisco Specialist exam (excluding Sales Specialist exams or MeetingPlace Specialist exams, Implementing Cisco TelePresence Installations (ITI) exams, Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction exams, or any 650 online exams), or
Pass any current CCIE Written Exam, or
Pass the current CCDE Written Exam or current CCDE Practical Exam, or
Pass the Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr) interview and the CCAr board review to extend lower certifications

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It is recognized to everybody in the business these days that after the economic disruptions, the idea selecting professionals tend to be thoroughly searching for the best skills along with sector knowledge. Madness of proper knowledge the following is they are specially 000-N12 searching for the particular hands-on encounter along with the IT certification. Because the hiring market has opened from an extended sleeping the competition has become also fiercer also to keep your advantage absolutely want it qualifications.

Within this competing market place of IT network, staying aggressive is indeed a challenge, while companies trying to find a lot more skills of the useful resource that they can would like to employ, the actual this professionals are also looking forward to seek Cisco certified network associate training packages. Because of the elevated demands on this study course numerous CCNA instruction methods has popped up, like- Cisco certified network associate class room training, CCNA online education, Cisco certified network associate training courses and others. Attaining this particular qualification means validating types abilities inside the desktop, server and networking internet domain names; it boosts their particular continue and raises their need.

Cisco Programs is one kind of many prime airline flight vendors and the qualification that Cisco provides get higher level associated with believability in the industry. The soil reality is in which obtaining a great the idea certification, just like CCNA acts like a benchmark for the procedure but for the progression directly into advanced work single profiles. It is also said that no matter what one discovers although pursuing Cisco certified network associate can be essential marketing understanding which enable it to easily be utilized as well as used in any kind of social networking setting.

Network being the most competitive internet domain names of computer; let's have a closer glance at the secrets of achieving success together with Cisco certified network associate certification assessment. The road associated with 'cisco' certifications
Looking for Cisco occupation, step one is experiencing the 1st level of the particular Cisco qualification I. Elizabeth. CCNA accreditation. This particular qualification is designed to verify a fundamental and also likely first step toward networking skills, which includes:

· Fundamental knowledge of the actual OSI guide product,
· Network standards,
· Level A couple of changing aspects as well as protocols,
· Redirecting ideas as well as methods, and
· Wide-area networking (WAN) online connectivity.

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Anyone that opens Cisco certified network associate accreditation must have the experience necessary to present standard system installation along with stage 1 troubleshooting expertise. Your study course load insures all the subject areas which might be the basis regarding marketing technologies and protocols. Therefore any expert which require making profession throughout network especially in 'cisco' technology, require a firm comprehension of these knowledge, and then only one gets a much better knowledge of complicated engineering afterwards.

Be prepared for CCNA exam
The best procedure for plan for Cisco certified network associate qualifications assessment isn't learning terms, instead understanding the functions linked to passing visitors by means of Layer Two knobs and also routers and its particular companies.
As this qualifications typically revolves around moving over and routing thus, the right way to seek understanding is usually to have a look at marketing through the standpoint of each and every unit and recognize the Ethernet Body or perhaps IP package and also to see the operate of every of these units to maneuver the actual box to a higher gadget or the network path.
Two necessary things are essential to remove the Cisco certified network associate qualification test:

· A complete comprehension of networking fundamentals
· the ability to manage & troubleshoot and fix 'cisco' social networking gadgets to use in the network

these items make this qualifications loved by the employees. As much systems make use of 'cisco' merchandise thus staying fluent while using 'cisco' methods give them additional side. Inside it internet domain names it's known that if somebody is aware of sufficient marketing to any 'cisco' qualification examination then an individual only discover distinct product owner's operating-system and merchandise to do a similar jobs. Consequently, these kinds of components lead to make business employers inside determining which candidates are viewed for using the services of or perhaps marketing.

What is CCNA?

With the growing and emerging use of information and communication technologies (ICT) around the world, the need for professionals with the needed knowledge is increasing in various organizations. The list includes networking concepts like social networking, e-commerce, cloud computing, desktop virtualization, web conferencing, etc. These types of work profiles are popular with CCNA graduates.

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CCNA is the abbreviation commonly used for Cisco Certified Network Associate. This IT Professional certification is administered by Pearson VUE. The certification enables the certified to establish, fix, configure, function, operate, and troubleshoot networks. Moreover, they are also trained to implement and verify connections in remote sites, carry out basic mitigation techniques of security threats, wireless networking, etc.

The course is comprehensive and integrated and allows the professional to be completely trained in networking.
Related CoverageCcna Certification Training
It is a training, through which our simulator functions can be downloaded with each Cisco 640-802 test. The real actual testing environment is simulated via this application, and you can concentrate on several sections of Cisco 640-802 (Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)) Exam. You can even use or make Pass For Sure Cisco 640-802 study materials and look at questions that you missed.
Maryland CCNA Training Classes For CCNA Certification
Certification in your area of speciality is a good way to move up the ladder in the working world or at least secure a job in your field. If you are looking to have a career in the field in of Information Technology or project management here are two certifications you may want to consider.
CCNA Voice Certification
CCNA Voice is another type of certification which is offered by many people and even this also allows people to change their entire career so that they can have a successful career
Understanding CCNA Certification
In the world of Information Technology, to survive in the current competition requires certification. Find out the secrets behind being successful on your CCNA certification exam.From basic to advanced applications and services, the CCNA certification ensures the certified to be trained in all aspects. In addition to technical knowledge, it also imparts practical experience and basic soft-skill advancement.

The Cisco Certified Network Associate is designed for those who want to master both network related problem solving and analytical skills by studying a comprehensive syllabus in a mix of theoretical, interacting, and practical learning environments.

CCNA to get the CCNA certificate, the candidate has to either:

* Complete a single exam that includes #640-801, or,
* Complete a two-exam path exam that includes #640-821 (Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies) and #640-811 (Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices).

Luckily, no prerequisites are required for availing CCNA certification. The exam can be conducted in English, Japanese, Chinese, Spanish, Russian, Korean, French, and Portuguese languages.

Where to Get CCNA Training?
Many institutions have certified CCNA teachers and trainers who train students on CCNA. This type of school is known as Cisco Networking Academy. The courses are also taught at many collegiate institutions, Cisco 360 Learning Programs, Cisco Learning Partners, and Cisco Learning Network. The CCNA certification is valid for three years and re-certification requires re-taking of exams that were previously completed. Many organizations get trainers from these institutions to help train their staff. Such organizations encourage their staff to follow a study at home routine with occasional lectures and support from professionals. Consequently, many individuals like to study on their own and then register for the exam. Exam centers are located in almost all parts of the world.

CCNA Salary and Job Prospects
the average salary of the CCNA professional in 2004 was $60, 000. Of course, salaries range differently as per years of experience, the company itself, and city of work. The most common job titles held by CCNA professionals are network engineer, systems administrator, senior network engineer, network operations, consulting systems engineer, systems engineer, trainer, management, and IT engineer. CCNA professionals have been reported to have great future career prospects, rewarding opportunities and are considered greats assets for any organization

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642-185 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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---

QUESTION 1
Which DHCP server gives secondary codecs in Cisco TelePresence CTS-3000 and CTS-3200
systems their IP addresses?

A. DHCP server on the voice VLAN
B. DHCP server on the primary codec
C. DHCP server on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. DHCP server on the CiscoTelePresence Manager

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
How do you calibrate the light meter from the Cisco recommended RRA tool kit?

A. Press the Auto Adjust button on the meter.
B. Turn the meter on and off.
C. Cover the sensor with the cap and press the Zero button.
D. Cover the sensor with the cap and press the Light Source button.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 3
What two options does an administrator have using WebUI for CTMS in Monitoring/Room Testing
for any active meeting? (Choose two.)

A. add a CTS System to a meeting
B. view network statistics
C. view meeting statistics
D. start loopback
E. force switch

Answer: A,B

---

QUESTION 4



Refer to the exhibit. You are using Cisco Telepresence Manager and have just added a new room
in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and have made test calls successfully. You run the
Discover Rooms option under Discovery Service successfully. You then go into the Rooms section
and see the status. Which is the cause of the problem?

A. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy does not have an email account listed in the Unified CM.
This is preventing the Cisco Telepresence Manager from synchronizing with the email address for
the Cisco Telepresence Room in the Calendar server.
B. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The
Calendar server does not have an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM.
C. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The
Calendar server has an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. The Cisco
Telepresence Manager does not have proper privileges to view this account.
D. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The
Calendar server has an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. The Cisco
Telepresence Manager cannot authenticate to the LDAP server and cannot log into the Calendar
server to synchronize with the account.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 5
During the RRA, how should you hold the light sensor when taking the majority of light
measurements?

A. Horizontally, so it gets the direct lighting from ceiling light fixtures.
B. Vertically, toward the displays to measure the light they put off.
C. Horizontally, toward any untreated windows to measure light coming in.
D. Vertically, so it is reading light as if it were hitting the participant's face.

Answer: D

---

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642-062 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Which two of these are features of the Cisco 2851 Integrated Services Router, but not features of
Cisco 1800 Series Integrated Services Routers? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).

A. 32-Gbps switching bus
B. built-in wireless module
C. Cisco SDM for simplified management
D. two integrated 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports
E. Power over Ethernet support for 10/100 Ethernet ports
F. slots dedicated to Cisco High-Density Analog and Digital Extension Module for Voice and Fax

Answer: D,F

---

QUESTION 2
Which two of these features can be managed by the Cisco SDM application? (Choose two.) Select
2 response(s).

A. VoIP
B. HSRP
C. IPsec VPN
D. QoS policy
E. PoE power consumption

Answer: C,D

---

QUESTION 3
Your network includes a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Switch with an FWSM module. You need Layer 2
connectivity between two routers located on different firewall interfaces. Which feature will you
need in order to provide this connectivity? Select the best response.

A. router mode
B. virtual firewall
C. stateful firewall
D. transparent mode
E. two FWSM modules in failover mode

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
Which supervisor module can be used in the Cisco Catalyst 4510R chassis? Select the best
response.

A. Supervisor II-Plus
B. Supervisor IV
C. Supervisor V-10GE
D. Supervisor II-TS

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 5
Which two tools can you use to manage and configure a Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series
Switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. CLI
B. Cisco Network Assistant
C. Cisco Smartports Advisor
D. Device Manager with embedded GUI

Answer: B,D

---

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640-822 Q & A / Study Guide

---

QUESTION 1
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts
in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity
issues. What will fix this problem?


A. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
B. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
E. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Answer: E

---

QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician
is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to
configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the
attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of
Layer 3 connectivity?


A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp

Answer: A

Explanation:
To display detailed information about neighboring devices discovered using Cisco Discovery
Protocol (CDP), use the show cdp neighbors privileged EXEC command.
Detail - (Optional) Displays detailed information about a neighbor (or neighbors) including network
address, enabled protocols, hold time, and software version.
The following is sample output for the show cdp neighbors detail command.
router# show cdp neighbors detail
-------------------------
Device ID: lab-7206
Entry address( es ):
IP address: 172.19.169.83
Platform: cisco 7206VXR, Capabilities: Router
Interface: Ethernet0, Port ID (outgoing port): FastEthernet0/0/0
Holdtime : 123 sec
Version :
Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software
IOS (tm) 5800 Software (C5800-P4-M), Version 12.1(2)
Copyright (c) 1986-2002 by Cisco Systems, Inc.
advertisement version: 2
Duplex: half

---

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)


A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

Answer: B,E

---

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?


A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure a default gateway on SW-A.
In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic
to router RTA where it can be routed to host A.

---

QUESTION 5
What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
B. the summarized address for all of the internalsubnetted addresses
C. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

Answer: C

Explanation:
With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows:
Inside local address - The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address
configured as a parameter of the computer's OS or received via dynamic address allocation
protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the
Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider.
Inside global address - A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that
represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address - The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not
necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address - The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host's
owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.
The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines
these terms by first defining "local address" and "global address." Keep in mind that the terms
"inside" and "outside" are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as "inside" or
"outside" with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside . Networks to
which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as "inside" networks or "outside" networks,
respectively.
Local address - A local address is any address that appears on the "inside" portion of the
network.
Global address - A global address is any address that appears on the "outside" portion of the
network.

640-822 Q & A / Study Guide

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---

QUESTION 1
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts
in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity
issues. What will fix this problem?


A. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
B. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
E. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Answer: E

---

QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician
is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to
configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the
attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of
Layer 3 connectivity?


A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp

Answer: A

Explanation:
To display detailed information about neighboring devices discovered using Cisco Discovery
Protocol (CDP), use the show cdp neighbors privileged EXEC command.
Detail - (Optional) Displays detailed information about a neighbor (or neighbors) including network
address, enabled protocols, hold time, and software version.
The following is sample output for the show cdp neighbors detail command.
router# show cdp neighbors detail
-------------------------
Device ID: lab-7206
Entry address( es ):
IP address: 172.19.169.83
Platform: cisco 7206VXR, Capabilities: Router
Interface: Ethernet0, Port ID (outgoing port): FastEthernet0/0/0
Holdtime : 123 sec
Version :
Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software
IOS (tm) 5800 Software (C5800-P4-M), Version 12.1(2)
Copyright (c) 1986-2002 by Cisco Systems, Inc.
advertisement version: 2
Duplex: half

---

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)


A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

Answer: B,E

---

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?


A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure a default gateway on SW-A.
In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic
to router RTA where it can be routed to host A.

---

QUESTION 5
What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
B. the summarized address for all of the internalsubnetted addresses
C. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

Answer: C

Explanation:
With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows:
Inside local address - The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address
configured as a parameter of the computer's OS or received via dynamic address allocation
protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the
Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider.
Inside global address - A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that
represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address - The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not
necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address - The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host's
owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.
The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines
these terms by first defining "local address" and "global address." Keep in mind that the terms
"inside" and "outside" are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as "inside" or
"outside" with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside . Networks to
which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as "inside" networks or "outside" networks,
respectively.
Local address - A local address is any address that appears on the "inside" portion of the
network.
Global address - A global address is any address that appears on the "outside" portion of the
network.

---

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?


A. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
E. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
F. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 7
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a
correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on
the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?


A. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. A loopback is not set.
F. The IP address is incorrect.

Answer: F

---

QUESTION 8
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing
the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?


A. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
B. Router names are incorrectly configured.
C. Serialip addresses
D. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When setting up local password database in CHAP, configure commands username username
password password in overall configuration mode to add note to local password database. Note
that the username here should be the router name on the opposite side. And the password should
be the same as that in the password database of CHAP authentication server. The above graphic
shows different password.

---

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A. cut-through
B. load balancing
C. congestion avoidance
D. buffering
E. windowing

Answer: C,D,E

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640-802 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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---

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the "Serial0/0 is down" interface status?
(Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and
which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is
shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using
the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured
on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
If you are a network administrator, how will you explain VTP configuration to a new technician?
(Choose three.)
A. In the VTP client mode, a switch is unable to update its local VLAN database.
B. Configure a trunk link between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. In the VTP server mode, a switch is able to update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. In the VTP transparent mode, a switch will forward the received updates to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a
higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the
configured VTP domain membership.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
VTP operates in one of three modes:
Server - In this VTP mode you can create, remove, and modify VLANs. You can also set other
configuration options like the VTP version and also turn on/off VTP pruning for the entire VTP
domain. VTP servers advertise their VLAN configuration to other switches in the same VTP
domain and synchronize their VLAN configuration with other switches based on messages
received over trunk links. VTP server is the default mode. The VLANs information are stored on
NVRAM and they are not lost after a reboot.
Client - VTP clients behave the same way as VTP servers, but you cannot create, change, or
delete VLANs on the local device. In VTP client mode, VLAN configurations are not saved in
NVRAM.

---

QUESTION 6
Cisco IOS (originally Internetwork Operating System) is the software used on the vast majority of
Cisco Systems routers and all current Cisco network switches. Which two of the following devices
could you configure as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: C,E
Explanation:

---

QUESTION 7
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
D. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
E. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
F. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is primarily used to obtain protocol addresses of neighboring
devices and discover the platform of those devices. CDP can also be used to show information
about the interfaces your router uses. CDP is an independent media protocol and runs on all
Cisco-manufactured devices including routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. It should be
noted that CDP is a protocol which works on the layer2. By default, multicast advertise is sent
every 60 seconds to 01-00-0 c-cc-cc-cc as the destination address . When reaching the holdtime
of 180 seconds , if not receiving the advertise from neighboring devices yet, the information of
neighboring devices will be cleared.
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators
collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather
hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting
and documenting the network.
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.

---

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination
addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Answer: A,F
Explanation:

---

QUESTION 9
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:
What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet
without address translation.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Since the hosts on the Fast Ethernet 0/1 network are using private RFC 1918 IP addressing
(192.168.10.0/24) their IP addresses will need to be translated into a publicly routable address in
order to access the Internet. However, the server is using the 198.133.219.9 IP address, which is
publicly routable and so Internet users can indeed access this server (assuming that the
198.133.219.9 IP address has been correctly assigned to the network)

---

QUESTION 10
Your Company has installed IP phones. Both the phones and the office computers connect to the
same device. The phone traffic and the office computer data traffic must be on different networks
to ensure maximum throughput for the phone data. Which network device can be best connected
to the phones and computers, and which technology will be performed on this device? (Choose
two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. stp
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
You can configure VLANs on the switch to distinguish two types of data traffic.

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---

QUESTION 1
According to the ITIL® v3 framework, what triggers an incident?

A. whenever a severity 3 incident is closed
B. when the problem is identified as urgent
C. when a problem is discovered during a change window
D. when an outage is called into a service center

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 2
According to the ITIL® v3 framework, what is the primary reason for implementing SLAs?

A. Ensure accurate measurement of response times.
B. Establish an open line of communication between the customer and the service provider
C. Reduce network latency.
D. Provide a legal contract between the customer and the service provider.

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 3
Each syslog message has a numerical severity level assigned to generate error messages about
software or hardware malfunctions. Which of these messages has the highest numeric severity
level?

A. Error
B. Emergency
C. Debug
D. Critical
E. Alert

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 4
Which three of these methods can you use to back up a configuration running Cisco IOS Software
Release 12.2 Mainline? (Choose three.

A. SNMP
B. SFTP
C. TFTP
D. KRON
E. SSH

Answer: A,C,D

---

QUESTION 5
A router is causing problems in the network and you want to capture as much information as you
can before you manually reload or power-cycle the router. What command would you type at the
CLI of the router to capture information that would be lost when the router is rebooted?

A. showcrashinfo
B. showsyslog
C. show tech-support
D. show stacks
E. show memory

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 6
Which three steps are best practices in accurately documenting a network? (Choose three).

A. Document separate Layer 2 and Layer 3 topologies.
B. Document Layer 3 topology to include all switches and routers.
C. Clearly document the port identifiers on all of the links.
D. Clearly depict different routing domains with appropriate information such as the routing
protocol and process number.
E. Avoid defining router-id commands and loopbacks in the router label.
F. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams.

Answer: A,C,D

---

QUESTION 7
Which three steps would you use to troubleshoot a performance-related problem in the network
core? (Choose three.)

A. define problem
B. analyze problem
C. determine affected users
D. create action plan
E. verify service-level requirements

Answer: A,B,D

---

QUESTION 8
Which two steps are best practices to be followed while documenting a network. (Choose two.)

A. Use proper icons for different devices in the network.
B. Use different colors and widths for denoting different links of different bandwidth.
C. Use same icons for all types of routers and switches in the network.
D. Avoid defining the router-id in the router label.
E. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams.

Answer: A,B

---

QUESTION 9
What is the advantage of using a passive monitoring technique?

A. does not require continuous measurement of traffic types
B. measures application-specific parameters per traffic classes
C. identifies issues and bottlenecks before they occur
D. no interference with live traffic

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 10
The command below was executed on a Cisco 12000 Series Router running Cisco IOS XR. Which
statement is true about the output of the command?



A. 71.44.1.66 is an IP address local to the router.
B. OSPF is not running on this router.
C. There are no static routes in the routing table.
D. The last route entry for Loopback causes routing loops

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is fading?

A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless
feature?

A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS),
notnonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to which
the client is associated.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 3
Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0
code?

A. 5
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
E. 150
F. 300

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 4
The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the
Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report
discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the
Alarm Summary?

A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Urgent

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 5
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers.
Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)

A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires CCXv5
D. requires the use of anonbroadcast SSID
E. requires CCXv4

Answer: B,C

---

QUESTION 6
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?

A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 7
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers
running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz.
The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN
controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS
authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first
remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2.
E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.

Answer: E

---

QUESTION 8
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the
Cisco WCS for Windows version?

A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 9
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is
displayed on Cisco IOS routers?

A. showconfig
B. show runconfig
C. show run-config
D. show runningconfig
E. show running-config

Answer: E

---

QUESTION 10
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)

A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle

Answer: B,D

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---

QUESTION 1
Which two statements correctly describe configuring active active failover? (Choose two.)

A. You must assign contexts to failover groups from the admin context.
B. Both units must be in multiple mode.
C. You must configure two failover groups group 1 and group 2.
D. You must use a crossover cable to connect the failover links on the two failover peers.

Answer: B,C

---

QUESTION 2
Observe the following exhibit carefully. When TCP connections are tunneled over another TCP
connection and latency exists between the two endpoints, each TCP session would trigger a
retransmission, which can quickly spiral out of control when the latency issues persist. This issue
is often called TCP-over-TCP meltdown. According to the presented Cisco ASDM configuration,
which Cisco ASA security appliance configuration will most likely solve this problem?


A. Compression
B. MTU size of 500
C. Keepalive Messages
D. Datagram TLS

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 3
The IT department of your company must perform a custom-built TCP application within the
clientless SSL VPN portal configured on your Cisco ASA security appliance. The application
should be run by users who have either guest or normal user mode privileges. In order to allow
this application to run, how to configure the clientless SSL VPN portal?

A. configure a smart tunnel for the application
B. configure a bookmark for the application
C. configure the plug-in that best fits the application
D. configure port forwarding for the application

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 4
According to the following exhibit. When a host on the inside network attempted an HTTP
connection to a host at IP address 172.26.10.100, which address pool will be used by the Cisco
ASA security appliance for the NAT?


A. 192.168.8.101 - 192.168.8.105
B. 192.168.8.20 - 192.168.8.100
C. 192.168.8.106 - 192.168.8.110
D. 192.168.8.20 - 192.168.8.110

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 5
Study the following exhibit carefully. You are asked to configure the Cisco ASA security appliance
with a connection profile and group policy for full network access SSL VPNs. During a test of the
configuration using the Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client, the connection times out. In the process of
troubleshooting, you determine to make configuration changes. According to the provided Cisco
ASDM configuration, which configuration change will you begin with?


A. Require a client certificate on the interface.
B. Enable an SSL VPN client type on the interface.
C. Enable DTLS on the interface.
D. Enable a different access port that doesn't conflict with Cisco ASDM.

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 6
You are the network security administrator for the CKD company. You create an FTP inspection
policy including the strict option, and it is applied to the outside interface of the corporate adaptive
security appliance. How to handle FTP on the security appliance after this policy is applied?
(Choose three.)

A. FTP inspection is applied to traffic entering the inside interface.
B. Strict FTP inspection is applied to traffic entering the outside interface.
C. FTP inspection is applied to traffic exiting the inside interface.
D. Strict FTP inspection is applied to traffic exiting the outside interface.

Answer: A,B,D

---

QUESTION 7
Which three statements correctly describe protocol inspection on the Cisco ASA adaptive security
appliance? (Choose three.)

A. The protocol inspection feature of the security appliance securely opens and closes negotiated
ports and IP addresses for legitimate client-server connections through the security appliance.
B. For the security appliance to inspect packets for signs of malicious application misuse, you
must enable advanced (application layer) protocol inspection.
C. If inspection for a protocol is notenabled, traffic for that protocol may be blocked.
D. If you want to enable inspection globally for a protocol that is not inspected by default or if you
want to globally disable inspection for a protocol, you can edit the default global policy.

Answer: A,C,D

---

QUESTION 8
An SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer virtual private network) is a form of VPN that can be used
with a standard Web browser. After configuring port forwarding for a clientless SSL VPN
connection, if port forwarding is to work, which end user privilege level is required at the endpoint?

A. system level
B. guest level
C. user level
D. administrator level

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 9
Which two methods can be used to decrease the amount of time it takes for an active Cisco ASA
adaptive security appliance to fail over to its standby failover peer in an activeactive failover
configuration? (Choose two.)

A. decrease the interface failover poll time
B. decrease the unit failover poll time
C. use the special serial failover cable to connect the security appliances
D. use single mode

Answer: A,B

---

QUESTION 10
Multimedia applications transmit requests on TCP, get responses on UDP or TCP, use dynamic
ports, and use the same port for source and destination, so they can pose challenges to a firewall.
Which three items are true about how the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance handles
multimedia applications? (Choose three.)

A. It dynamically opens and closes UDP ports for secure multimedia connections, so you do not
need to open a large range of ports.
B. It supports SIP with NAT but not with PAT.
C. It supports multimedia with or without NAT.
D. It supports RTSP, H.323, Skinny, and CTIQBE.

Answer: A,C,D

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---

QUESTION 1
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?
(Choose three.)

A. authentication
B. VLAN support
C. compression
D. multilink support

Answer: A,C,D

---

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the
information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?


A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
C. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network
D. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

Answer: A

Explanation:
As can be seen above, the hello interval for R1 has been set to 5 seconds, while it is set to 10 for
R2. Also, the dead interval on R1 is set at 20 seconds while on router CKD2 it is set to 40 seconds.
In order for two routers to establish an OSPF neigh adjacency, the hello and dead timers must
match.

---

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are
shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?


A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)


A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by2950Switch.
C. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
D. All frames arriving on2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky
addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to
restrict a port's ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into
the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the
number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device
attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with
static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with
sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.
If you enter a write memory or copy running- config startup- config command, then port security
with sticky MAC addresses saves dynamically learned MAC addresses in the startup- config file
and the port does not have to learn addresses from ingress traffic after bootup or a restart.
Since the maximum number of MAC addresses has been configured to 1, only host A will be able
to send frames on interface fa 0/1, making choice C correct.

---

QUESTION 5
A university has a small campus in which 25 faculty members are located. The faculty offices and
student computers are currently on the same network. The faculty are concerned about students
being able to capture packets going across the network and obtain sensitive material. In order to
protect faculty network traffic from student connections ,which action will you take?

A. Remove the student computers from the network and put them on a peer-to-peer network.
B. Put the faculty computers in a separate VLAN.
C. Power down the switches that connect to faculty computers when they are not in use.
D. Install anti-virus software on the student computers.

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 6
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as dual-stack routing.

A. False
B. True

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to
VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding
switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were
attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes
as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located
on the same LAN segment.
Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network
based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical
or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup
can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or
interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead
of physically relocating devices.
Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP
subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is
routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger
network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later.
A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches.
Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast , multicast, and broadcast
traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports
belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will
normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.

---

QUESTION 8
Which technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?


A. EIGRP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. ARP

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 9
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three)

Sw-AC3#show int trunk


A. Fa0/1
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/12
D. Fa0/3

Answer: B,C,D

---

QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet
access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this
task, what command should be used?

A. access-list 101 denyip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any

Answer: D

Explanation:
Only choice specifies the correct TCT port and wildcard mask, and uses a valid access list
number.
Incorrect Answers:
A: IP is specified as the protocol, when it should be TCP.
B: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.
C: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.

---

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30


A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP
domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server
mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP
information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be
advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive
updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added
to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here's a hint: if
you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN
information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still
forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and
delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.
Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local
VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other
switch.

---

QUESTION 12
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-andspoke
Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured
between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need
to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?


A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25subnetworks so that at least two bits are
borrowed from the last octet.
B. Configure the noip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links toR2
and R3.
D. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 13
An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from
reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will
accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?


A. denytcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permitip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permitip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
D. denytcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 14
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They can enhance network security.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They simplify switch administration.
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple, smaller LANs. This can be used to enhance
security as local traffic from one VLAN will not be passed to users in other VLANS.

---

QUESTION 15
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Answer: C

Explanation:
You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying
MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC
addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the
group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a
single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of
the port.
If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is
reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of
the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure
MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a
violation is flagged.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps628/products_configuration_guide_chapter0
9186a00800d6a38.html#86378

Cisco plans free telepresence client

PC and Mac users will be able to join a meeting with an e-mail invitation and a download

IDG News Service - Cisco Systems is taking several steps to extend its TelePresence videoconferencing technology beyond enterprise meeting rooms, introducing two endpoints and a free client application for ad hoc participants to download.

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To mark the fifth anniversary of its introduction of TelePresence, Cisco previewed several new offerings during a press event held Tuesday at its TelePresence proving ground in San Jose, California. The products are due to be announced Wednesday. At the event, Cisco emphasized that its videoconferencing technology is becoming more accessible, five years after the company unveiled the three-screen TelePresence 3000 room system then priced at nearly $300,000 per room.

"TelePresence is no longer restricted to the boardroom. It is now ... wanted everywhere," said Jacob Nordan, director of product management in Cisco's Infrastructure Business Unit, who joined the meeting from Oslo via TelePresence. Cisco's emphasis echoes what analysts and other vendors have said over the past year, focusing on the growth potential for desktop and mobile videoconferencing.

At the event, the company unveiled Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence, a free application designed to let just about anyone with a PC or Mac join a TelePresence session. An enterprise or small business with an in-house or hosted TelePresence capability can go to a globally accessible website and create an invitation that goes out to customers, partners or other participants via e-mail. The participants will receive an e-mail with a link to download the Jabber Video software and join the meeting.

Jabber Video for TelePresence is going into beta testing soon and is expected to become generally available early next year, said Gina Clark, vice president and general manager of the TelePresence Cloud business unit. It currently is an English-language product but people all over the world will be able to download it, she said.

Cisco also introduced the MX300, a new model in its line of value-priced TelePresence endpoints for small and medium-size businesses. The MX300 is a step up from the MX200 introduced earlier this year, featuring a 55-inch (139.7 centimeters) display compared with the MX200's 42-inch. The new unit can deliver videoconferences at 1080p resolution and 30 frames per second and is suitable for as many as nine people in a room, Cisco said. The unit is designed to be set up in less than 15 minutes. It is scheduled to hit the market in January for a list price of $27,600.

Also on Tuesday, the company announced the Cisco TelePresence VX Clinical Assistant. This endpoint is designed for use in medical applications, including remote patient consultations and medical education. The VX is set to go on sale in the first quarter of next year in the U.S. and Europe, starting at $29,500.

642-436 Exam

QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)

A. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they
support voice or video.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
D. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
E. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.

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and more at certkingdom.com

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?

A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice packets carry their own signaling.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Examine the example output.
hostname GW1
!
interface Ethernet 0/0
ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0
h323-gateway voip interface
h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2
h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1
h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1
!
dial-peer voice 1 voip
destination-pattern 1212.
session-target ras
!
dial-peer voice 2 pots
destination-pattern2125551212
no register e164
!
end
Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.

A. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions would be initiated by a UAS? (Choose two.)


A. Contacts the user when a SIP invitation is received
B. Originates the REFER method to initiate call termination
C. Returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator
D. Originates the INVITE method including a description of the session parameters
E. Originates the ACK method to indicate that it has received a response to an invitation

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 5
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?

A. Acts only as a recorder of call details
B. Provides only call signaling and call setup
C. Manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. Monitors the quality of each call after setup

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and
the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?

A. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the
call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
D. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command
first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones are SCCP phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone G.
Which call setup signaling statement is true?


A. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
D. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup
signaling statement is correct?


A. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
B. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
C. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
D. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.
E. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the
setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.

Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Three department managers share the directory number 3000. The
Marketing manager's phone is attached to port 1/1. The Engineering manager's phone is attached
to port 1/2. The Shipping manager's phone is attached to port 1/3. In which situation would an
incoming call ring on the Shipping manager's phone?


A. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
B. None of the managers are on the phone.
C. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.

Answer: E

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to
implement COR? (Choose four.)



Answer:



Explanation: