CCNA Qualifications ; Satisfaction Guaranteed

CCNA Qualifications ; Satisfaction Guaranteed

CCNA Security Certification
Cisco Certified Network Associate Security (CCNA Security) validates associate-level knowledge and skills required to secure Cisco networks. With a CCNA Security certification, a network professional demonstrates the skills required to develop a security infrastructure, recognize threats and vulnerabilities to networks, and mitigate security threats. The CCNA Security curriculum emphasizes core security technologies, the installation, troubleshooting and monitoring of network devices to maintain integrity, confidentiality and availability of data and devices, and competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security structure.

CCNA Security Recertification
CCNA Security certifications are valid for three years. To recertify, pass ONE of the following before the certification expiration date:

Pass any current CCNA Concentration exam (wireless, or security, or voice, or SP Ops), or
Pass any current 642-XXX Professional level exam, or
Pass the current CCDA DESGN exam, or
Pass any current Cisco Specialist exam (excluding Sales Specialist exams or MeetingPlace Specialist exams, Implementing Cisco TelePresence Installations (ITI) exams, Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction exams, or any 650 online exams), or
Pass any current CCIE Written Exam, or
Pass the current CCDE Written Exam or current CCDE Practical Exam, or
Pass the Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr) interview and the CCAr board review to extend lower certifications

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640-822 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts
in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity
issues. What will fix this problem?


A. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
B. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
E. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Answer: E

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QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician
is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to
configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the
attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of
Layer 3 connectivity?


A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp

Answer: A

Explanation:
To display detailed information about neighboring devices discovered using Cisco Discovery
Protocol (CDP), use the show cdp neighbors privileged EXEC command.
Detail - (Optional) Displays detailed information about a neighbor (or neighbors) including network
address, enabled protocols, hold time, and software version.
The following is sample output for the show cdp neighbors detail command.
router# show cdp neighbors detail
-------------------------
Device ID: lab-7206
Entry address( es ):
IP address: 172.19.169.83
Platform: cisco 7206VXR, Capabilities: Router
Interface: Ethernet0, Port ID (outgoing port): FastEthernet0/0/0
Holdtime : 123 sec
Version :
Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software
IOS (tm) 5800 Software (C5800-P4-M), Version 12.1(2)
Copyright (c) 1986-2002 by Cisco Systems, Inc.
advertisement version: 2
Duplex: half

---

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)


A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

Answer: B,E

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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?


A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure a default gateway on SW-A.
In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic
to router RTA where it can be routed to host A.

---

QUESTION 5
What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
B. the summarized address for all of the internalsubnetted addresses
C. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

Answer: C

Explanation:
With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows:
Inside local address - The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address
configured as a parameter of the computer's OS or received via dynamic address allocation
protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the
Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider.
Inside global address - A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that
represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address - The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not
necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address - The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host's
owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.
The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines
these terms by first defining "local address" and "global address." Keep in mind that the terms
"inside" and "outside" are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as "inside" or
"outside" with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside . Networks to
which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as "inside" networks or "outside" networks,
respectively.
Local address - A local address is any address that appears on the "inside" portion of the
network.
Global address - A global address is any address that appears on the "outside" portion of the
network.

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QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?


A. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
E. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
F. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred

Answer: C

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QUESTION 7
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a
correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on
the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?


A. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. A loopback is not set.
F. The IP address is incorrect.

Answer: F

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QUESTION 8
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing
the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?


A. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
B. Router names are incorrectly configured.
C. Serialip addresses
D. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When setting up local password database in CHAP, configure commands username username
password password in overall configuration mode to add note to local password database. Note
that the username here should be the router name on the opposite side. And the password should
be the same as that in the password database of CHAP authentication server. The above graphic
shows different password.

---

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A. cut-through
B. load balancing
C. congestion avoidance
D. buffering
E. windowing

Answer: C,D,E

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Cisco 642-515 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements correctly describe configuring active active failover? (Choose two.)

A. You must assign contexts to failover groups from the admin context.
B. Both units must be in multiple mode.
C. You must configure two failover groups group 1 and group 2.
D. You must use a crossover cable to connect the failover links on the two failover peers.

Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 2
Observe the following exhibit carefully. When TCP connections are tunneled over another TCP
connection and latency exists between the two endpoints, each TCP session would trigger a
retransmission, which can quickly spiral out of control when the latency issues persist. This issue
is often called TCP-over-TCP meltdown. According to the presented Cisco ASDM configuration,
which Cisco ASA security appliance configuration will most likely solve this problem?


A. Compression
B. MTU size of 500
C. Keepalive Messages
D. Datagram TLS

Answer: D

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QUESTION 3
The IT department of your company must perform a custom-built TCP application within the
clientless SSL VPN portal configured on your Cisco ASA security appliance. The application
should be run by users who have either guest or normal user mode privileges. In order to allow
this application to run, how to configure the clientless SSL VPN portal?

A. configure a smart tunnel for the application
B. configure a bookmark for the application
C. configure the plug-in that best fits the application
D. configure port forwarding for the application

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
According to the following exhibit. When a host on the inside network attempted an HTTP
connection to a host at IP address 172.26.10.100, which address pool will be used by the Cisco
ASA security appliance for the NAT?


A. 192.168.8.101 - 192.168.8.105
B. 192.168.8.20 - 192.168.8.100
C. 192.168.8.106 - 192.168.8.110
D. 192.168.8.20 - 192.168.8.110

Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
Study the following exhibit carefully. You are asked to configure the Cisco ASA security appliance
with a connection profile and group policy for full network access SSL VPNs. During a test of the
configuration using the Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client, the connection times out. In the process of
troubleshooting, you determine to make configuration changes. According to the provided Cisco
ASDM configuration, which configuration change will you begin with?


A. Require a client certificate on the interface.
B. Enable an SSL VPN client type on the interface.
C. Enable DTLS on the interface.
D. Enable a different access port that doesn't conflict with Cisco ASDM.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 6
You are the network security administrator for the CKD company. You create an FTP inspection
policy including the strict option, and it is applied to the outside interface of the corporate adaptive
security appliance. How to handle FTP on the security appliance after this policy is applied?
(Choose three.)

A. FTP inspection is applied to traffic entering the inside interface.
B. Strict FTP inspection is applied to traffic entering the outside interface.
C. FTP inspection is applied to traffic exiting the inside interface.
D. Strict FTP inspection is applied to traffic exiting the outside interface.

Answer: A,B,D

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QUESTION 7
Which three statements correctly describe protocol inspection on the Cisco ASA adaptive security
appliance? (Choose three.)

A. The protocol inspection feature of the security appliance securely opens and closes negotiated
ports and IP addresses for legitimate client-server connections through the security appliance.
B. For the security appliance to inspect packets for signs of malicious application misuse, you
must enable advanced (application layer) protocol inspection.
C. If inspection for a protocol is notenabled, traffic for that protocol may be blocked.
D. If you want to enable inspection globally for a protocol that is not inspected by default or if you
want to globally disable inspection for a protocol, you can edit the default global policy.

Answer: A,C,D

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QUESTION 8
An SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer virtual private network) is a form of VPN that can be used
with a standard Web browser. After configuring port forwarding for a clientless SSL VPN
connection, if port forwarding is to work, which end user privilege level is required at the endpoint?

A. system level
B. guest level
C. user level
D. administrator level

Answer: D

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QUESTION 9
Which two methods can be used to decrease the amount of time it takes for an active Cisco ASA
adaptive security appliance to fail over to its standby failover peer in an activeactive failover
configuration? (Choose two.)

A. decrease the interface failover poll time
B. decrease the unit failover poll time
C. use the special serial failover cable to connect the security appliances
D. use single mode

Answer: A,B

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QUESTION 10
Multimedia applications transmit requests on TCP, get responses on UDP or TCP, use dynamic
ports, and use the same port for source and destination, so they can pose challenges to a firewall.
Which three items are true about how the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance handles
multimedia applications? (Choose three.)

A. It dynamically opens and closes UDP ports for secure multimedia connections, so you do not
need to open a large range of ports.
B. It supports SIP with NAT but not with PAT.
C. It supports multimedia with or without NAT.
D. It supports RTSP, H.323, Skinny, and CTIQBE.

Answer: A,C,D

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640-816 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?
(Choose three.)

A. authentication
B. VLAN support
C. compression
D. multilink support

Answer: A,C,D

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QUESTION 2
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the
information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?


A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
C. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network
D. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

Answer: A

Explanation:
As can be seen above, the hello interval for R1 has been set to 5 seconds, while it is set to 10 for
R2. Also, the dead interval on R1 is set at 20 seconds while on router CKD2 it is set to 40 seconds.
In order for two routers to establish an OSPF neigh adjacency, the hello and dead timers must
match.

---

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are
shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?


A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)


A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by2950Switch.
C. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
D. All frames arriving on2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky
addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to
restrict a port's ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into
the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the
number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device
attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with
static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with
sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.
If you enter a write memory or copy running- config startup- config command, then port security
with sticky MAC addresses saves dynamically learned MAC addresses in the startup- config file
and the port does not have to learn addresses from ingress traffic after bootup or a restart.
Since the maximum number of MAC addresses has been configured to 1, only host A will be able
to send frames on interface fa 0/1, making choice C correct.

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QUESTION 5
A university has a small campus in which 25 faculty members are located. The faculty offices and
student computers are currently on the same network. The faculty are concerned about students
being able to capture packets going across the network and obtain sensitive material. In order to
protect faculty network traffic from student connections ,which action will you take?

A. Remove the student computers from the network and put them on a peer-to-peer network.
B. Put the faculty computers in a separate VLAN.
C. Power down the switches that connect to faculty computers when they are not in use.
D. Install anti-virus software on the student computers.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 6
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as dual-stack routing.

A. False
B. True

Answer: B

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QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to
VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding
switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were
attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes
as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located
on the same LAN segment.
Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network
based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical
or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup
can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or
interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead
of physically relocating devices.
Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP
subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is
routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger
network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later.
A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches.
Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast , multicast, and broadcast
traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports
belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will
normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.

---

QUESTION 8
Which technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?


A. EIGRP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. ARP

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 9
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three)

Sw-AC3#show int trunk


A. Fa0/1
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/12
D. Fa0/3

Answer: B,C,D

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QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet
access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this
task, what command should be used?

A. access-list 101 denyip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any

Answer: D

Explanation:
Only choice specifies the correct TCT port and wildcard mask, and uses a valid access list
number.
Incorrect Answers:
A: IP is specified as the protocol, when it should be TCP.
B: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.
C: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.

---

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30


A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP
domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server
mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP
information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be
advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive
updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added
to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here's a hint: if
you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN
information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still
forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and
delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.
Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local
VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other
switch.

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QUESTION 12
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-andspoke
Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured
between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need
to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?


A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25subnetworks so that at least two bits are
borrowed from the last octet.
B. Configure the noip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links toR2
and R3.
D. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 13
An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from
reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will
accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?


A. denytcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permitip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permitip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
D. denytcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Answer: A

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QUESTION 14
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They can enhance network security.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They simplify switch administration.
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple, smaller LANs. This can be used to enhance
security as local traffic from one VLAN will not be passed to users in other VLANS.

---

QUESTION 15
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Answer: C

Explanation:
You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying
MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC
addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the
group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a
single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of
the port.
If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is
reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of
the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure
MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a
violation is flagged.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps628/products_configuration_guide_chapter0
9186a00800d6a38.html#86378

640-816 Exam

---

QUESTION 1

Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?

(Choose three.)


A. authentication

B. VLAN support

C. compression

D. multilink support


Answer: A,C,D

---

QUESTION 2

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The

routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic

shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the

information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?





A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

C. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network

D. The cost on R1 should be set higher.


Answer: A


Explanation:

As can be seen above, the hello interval for R1 has been set to 5 seconds, while it is set to 10 for

R2. Also, the dead interval on R1 is set at 20 seconds while on router CKD2 it is set to 40 seconds.

In order for two routers to establish an OSPF neigh adjacency, the hello and dead timers must

match.

---

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are

shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?





A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access

SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1

SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10

SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk


Answer: D

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---

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when

this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)





A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by2950Switch.

C. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.

D. All frames arriving on2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out

fa0/1.


Answer: C,D


Explanation:

The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky

addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to

restrict a port's ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into

the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward

ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the

number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device

attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.

Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with

static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with

sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.

If you enter a write memory or copy running- config startup- config command, then port security

with sticky MAC addresses saves dynamically learned MAC addresses in the startup- config file

and the port does not have to learn addresses from ingress traffic after bootup or a restart.

Since the maximum number of MAC addresses has been configured to 1, only host A will be able

to send frames on interface fa 0/1, making choice C correct.

---

QUESTION 5

A university has a small campus in which 25 faculty members are located. The faculty offices and

student computers are currently on the same network. The faculty are concerned about students

being able to capture packets going across the network and obtain sensitive material. In order to

protect faculty network traffic from student connections ,which action will you take?


A. Remove the student computers from the network and put them on a peer-to-peer network.

B. Put the faculty computers in a separate VLAN.

C. Power down the switches that connect to faculty computers when they are not in use.

D. Install anti-virus software on the student computers.


Answer: B

---

QUESTION 6

Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as dual-stack routing.


A. False

B. True


Answer: B

---

QUESTION 7

You are a network administrator. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to

VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding

switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?


A. The additions will create more collisions domains.

B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.

C. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.

D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.


Answer: D


Explanation:

A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were

attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes

as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located

on the same LAN segment.

Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network

based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical

or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup

can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or

interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead

of physically relocating devices.

Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP

subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is

routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger

network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later.

A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches.

Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast , multicast, and broadcast

traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports

belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will

normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.

---

QUESTION 8

Which technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?





A. EIGRP

B. VTP

C. STP

D. ARP


Answer: C

---

QUESTION 9

What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three)




Sw-AC3#show int trunk





A. Fa0/1

B. Fa0/9

C. Fa0/12

D. Fa0/3


Answer: B,C,D

---

QUESTION 10

You are a network administrator. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet

access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this

task, what command should be used?


A. access-list 101 denyip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23

access-list 101 permit ip any any

B. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23

access-list 1 permit ip any any

C. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21

access-list 1 permit ip any any

D. access-list 101 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23

access-list 101 permit ip any any


Answer: D


Explanation:

Only choice specifies the correct TCT port and wildcard mask, and uses a valid access list
number.



Incorrect Answers:

A: IP is specified as the protocol, when it should be TCP.

B: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an

extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.

C: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an

extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.

---

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?

Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access

Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30





A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as

a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.

B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as

a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.

C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to

theSwitch2 VLAN database.

D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to

theSwitch2 VLAN database.


Answer: D


Explanation:

The three VTP modes are described below:

Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP

domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server

mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP

information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be

advertised to the entire VTP domain.

Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive

updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added

to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here's a hint: if

you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN

information, then change it to a server-much easier!

Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still

forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and

delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.

Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.

In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local

VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other

switch.

---

QUESTION 12

S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-andspoke

Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured

between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need

to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?







A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25subnetworks so that at least two bits are

borrowed from the last octet.

B. Configure the noip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.

C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links toR2
and R3.

D. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.


Answer: C

---

QUESTION 13

An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from

reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will

accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?

A. denytcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any

B. permitip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80

C. permitip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

D. denytcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any


Answer: A

---

QUESTION 14

Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)


A. They can enhance network security.

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.

C. They simplify switch administration.

D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast

domains.


Answer: A,B,D


Explanation:

VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple, smaller LANs. This can be used to enhance

security as local traffic from one VLAN will not be passed to users in other VLANS.

---

QUESTION 15

A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?


A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port

B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports

C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN

D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports


Answer: C


Explanation:

You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying

MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC

addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the

group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a

single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of

the port.

If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is

reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of

the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure

MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a

violation is flagged.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps628/products_configuration_guide_chapter0

9186a00800d6a38.html#86378

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Microsoft unveils Samsung Windows 8 tablet for developers

Giving 5,000 away to Build attendees

Microsoft has unveiled the first-ever Windows 8 tablet, built by Samsung, which it is giving away to developers attending this week's Build conference.

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The Samsung Windows Developer Preview PC, which is essentially the Samsung Series 7 tablet, will come loaded with the developer build of the new Windows 8 operating system.

The impressively specced-out device features an 11.6-inch 1366 x 768 Super PLS display, a dual-core 1.6GHz Intel i5 processor, a 64GB SSD and 4GB RAM.

The device also comes with USB, Micro USB and HMDI ports, as well as a dock to allow you to plug in a mouse and keyboard.
5,000 free units

The device, of which Microsoft has built 5,000 units, will allow developers to test the new operating system and begin the process of building apps for the new platform, set to launch in 2012.

Microsoft is also including free mobile data for developers for an entire year.

The device, in its current guise is unlikely to ever make it to market, but the relationship with Samsung is likely to be a key one when Microsoft begins building Windows 8 tablets for consumers.

It was also interesting to hear Microsoft continue to refer to all of its Windows 8 products as "PCs" rather than tablets or slates.

Why Do You Need 640-802 Practice Q and A?

Cisco is the international organization in computer networking that transforms how people communicate and work together. Cisco Company produces and sells electronics goods. Cisco is world recognized organization due to its products quality. Cisco has strong impact on the IT professionals.

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Cisco certification enhance your abilities

Cisco certification is highly valued in IT profession. Holder of Cisco certification can apply for job everywhere in the world. Cisco certification is the name of guarantee. A professional can enhance his/her capabilities and can easily improve his/her knowledge and expertise with Cisco certification. Companies are searching for those employees who are well certified and have extra ordinary skills and abilities in their field.
Ensure your reliability

Exam 640-802 is the complex exam connected with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. 640-802exam is a greatest way to evaluate the applicant's knowledge and abilities in a relevant field of work. Exam 640-802 is the most valued and demanded exam in IT field. To pass this practice exam 640-802 is not so easy but with our assistance you will clear 640-802 in a very first chance. The professionals who want to be skillful in their fields and also have a wish to reach at the peak of capability and success they use different certification exams for this reason. Practice exams 640-802 are genuine certifications that guarantee your employers that you are highly skilled, qualified, and consistent.

You can pass exam in very first attempt

Practice exam comprises all the questions and answers to assist you in passing the real exam with good marks. If you want to be successful in your profession and want to get distinction among other competitors then come and follow our guideline. With our help you can attain your goals very easily by passing 640-802 exam. With our training material we ensure you 100% success in real exam Free MCTS Training and MCTS Online Training.success in real exam.

CCNA Salary

The CCNA salary range is very similar in nature to the CCNP salary levels, because previous experience, education and other skill sets can play a significant role in the salary you can qualify for. Generally speaking, the Cisco Certified Network Associate pays less than the CCNP designation, and is cited in more junior network IT positions.

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The CCNA salary survey shows that yearly income can more than double, depending on geographic location, the college degrees you have, and other factors.

Let’s look at the 2011 CCNA salary data and see what Cisco IT professionals are getting paid.
USA CCNA Salary Rates

As mentioned, CCNA salary levels in the USA can vary a lot, based on where you live and who you work for. Let’s look at some regions and see the going CCNA salary rates for New York, Dallas and other IT centers in the USA, as reported by Pay Scale:
CCNA Salary New York: Low $43,500 High $123,000

New York is one of the places in the US with the biggest range of salaries for CCNA qualified employees. The top end, at over $123,000 is one of the highest salaries in all of the USA.
CCNA Salary Dallas and Houston

Dallas and Houston are fairly competitive, with salaries in Dallas generally being 5%-10% higher than Houston. Here’s the current CCNA salaries being reported:

Dallas: Low $39,000 High $106,000

Houston: Low $35,000 High $102,000
Atlanta CCNA Salary

The CCNA salary reports from Atlanta suggest the pay is close to Texas, with salaries ranging from $39,000 up to $112,000
Chicago CCNA Salary Levels

If you work in the CCNA salary Chicago data indicates the range to be from $40,000 to $106,000 in 2011, with salary levels growing at 4-5% annually.
CCNA Salary UK Data, Including London

The CCNA salary for the UK is divided into two groups: all of the UK, and everything excluding the London area, because in the London area, CCNA salaries are generally significantly higher.

Looking at the ITJobsWatch site, we see the current CCNA salary rate is £37,000, and if you take all the UK CCNA salary information excluding London, the average rate drops to £35,000.

The average annual salary growth rate averages around 5% for all of the UK, but only about 3% if you exclude the London area.
CCNA Salary Australia – Sydney, Adelaide

The CCNA Salary data for Australia suggests the pay is on par with America, with entry level positions offering around AU$40,000 and senior positions exceeding AU$100,000. Your educations, skills and experience will influence the offers you get, along with your geographic location and the employers you target.
CCNA Salary In India

The current CCNA salary rates in India are significantly lower than the USA, the UK, Australia, New Zealand, and Canada. In fact, many levels of careers in India ask for the CCNA designation, including everything from network engineer to IT Director. Generally speaking, the entry level with little or no experience apart from the CCNA designation will earn you a salary starting around Rs 94,567, according to payscale, and the salary can increase more than 500%, up to Rs 501,923, depending on previous work experience and education.

Generally speaking, if you come from a top school, like Mumbai university, your salary will be higher, even as much as Rs 120,000 for a starting position. Likewise, other schools, like IGNOU can lower your starting salary, down to as little as Rs 60,000.
CCNA Requirements

Here are what you need to do to get your CCNA and qualify for CCNA salary levels, as referenced on Wikipedia:

CCNA (Cisco Certified Network Associate) is the certification from Cisco.CCNA certification is a second-level Cisco Career certification. CCNA certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN.

To achieve CCNA certification, one must earn a passing score on Cisco exam #640-802, or combined passing scores on both the ICND1 #640-822 and ICND2 #640-816 exams.

Passing the ICND1 grants one the Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician (CCENT) certification.

Passing scores are set by using statistical analysis and are subject to change. At the completion of the exam, candidates receive a score report along with a score breakout by exam section and the passing score for the given exam.

Cisco does not publish exam passing scores because exam questions and passing scores are subject to change without notice.

The use of IP, EIGRP, Frame Relay, RIPv2, VLANs, Ethernet, and access control lists is all included within the curriculum.

CISCO produce a breakdown of the CCNA topics on their website.

The exams themselves include a mixture of question types including Multiple choice, drag and drop, Testlets and simulations.


Additional CCNA Salary Information

For additional CCNA Salary data, consult the local online job listings, as well as the CCNA salary surveys being published online.

If you want to comment on your knowledge of CCNA salary rates around the world, leave a comment below.
Incoming search terms:

entry level CCNA salary new york

Purdue's hefty switch discounts 'unusual,' Cisco says

Company responds to blog reports showing discounts of 76% on Nexus switches for university.
The steep discounts that Purdue University recently received on Cisco's Nexus 7000 switches are 'unusual' and based on factors that go beyond the purchase alone, Cisco says.

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Cisco this week responded to blog reports that it offered Purdue an exclusive deal that includes a 76% discount off Nexus 7000 switches. Purdue is shopping for switches for its Hansen Cluster project, which is a "community cluster" for Purdue faculty and staff looking to cost-effectively acquire computational resources.

There's also the "bake-off" process in which a customer evaluates proposals and staged implementations from bidding vendors. In winning those evaluations, Cisco is rarely the lowest-priced solution, company officials say.

Other factors, such as vendor stability, service and support capabilities and product road map, also come into play, they say. Another is the total cost of ownership over the long-term implementation of the proposed solution, a variable that determines the "value leader" vs. the "price leader," Cisco says.

"We continue to win the majority of deals by not being the price leader," Velaga says.

Nonetheless, Cisco's preparing for customers to demand Purdue-sized discounts now that the Hansen Cluster deal's been made public.

"I wouldn't be surprised if people reached out at a sales level" to request such deep discounting, Velaga says. "They do anyway."

Read more about lans & wans in Network World's LANs & WANs section.

CCNA 640-802 Learning

640-802 Exam: first-choosed braindumps
Language:English
Exam Number/Code: 640-802
Exam Name : Cisco Certified Network Associate
Vendor: Cisco
Associated Certifications：CCNA
Questions and Answers : 441 Questions&Answers
Latest Update Time: 20-07-2010

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Fast-Charging Batteries Face Long Road to Production

The research firm of IDC has predicted that Windows Phone 7 could beat the iPhone by 2015. I'm not sure if they predicted it to get a lot of attention for IDC or if they are serious.

The whole idea stems from the Nokia deal and patterns of buying behavior. There is not enough data—none, in fact—on the pick-up sales created by the Microsoft-Nokia deal, so this prediction is completely off-the-wall and seems based more on current Symbian numbers than actual sales. There is one conceivable underlying assertion, and that's that Phone 7 is better, by far, than Symbian, and if Symbian is still hanging in there (it is), then Phone 7 should do as well or better.

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So logically, this is not a real stretch.

The way IDC sees all this is as follows (all predicted for 2015): Android will be number one with 45.4 percent market share, next will be Windows Phone 7 and Windows Mobile with 20.9 percent, and will be followed by Apple's iPhone with 15.3 percent.. Taking up the rear will be BlackBerry with 13.7 percent, "Others" with 4.6 percent, and then Symbian with 0.2 percent.

This list assumes a lack of consolidation. Anyone who has read my thoughts on the issue knows that I expect the smartphone OSs to consolidate in much the same way that the PC OS business consolidated into two camps, PC and Mac. The smartphone market will logically consolidate into the same basic model. This time, the finally two will be Android and iOS.

This will happen largely for the same reason that the PC/Mac duopoly consolidated and that reason is developer support. People like to buy into a platform that has a lot of developer support, and developers only support what is popular, which is determined by developer support, and it goes round and round.

This crazy cycle cannot be easily broken by newcomers although it was done twice in recent memory in the gaming business by both Sony's PlayStation and Microsoft's Xbox. These two were not even in the game when Sega and Nintendo were battling it out, and everyone said no newcomers could emerge.

But the gaming business is different enough from the PC or smartphone businesses to reject the possibility that a newcomer—Phone 7—could enter the game and becoming successful. And I say this knowing full well that Microsoft invented the category. Okay, to put some historical gaming business spin on it: Atari invented the video game and where is it now?

To summarize: the IDC report is rank speculation.

The one long shot possibility, the way I see it, is that Windows Phone 7 phones could become the low-end smartphones that replace all the so-called feature phones. We have to face the fact that eventually all phones will have no buttons and be based on the smartphone virtual keyboard concept, because at some point they will be much cheaper to make. We can call them software phones, since their operation will be all software.

The problem with Microsoft trying to take over the lower-end segment of the market is that Android and Apple could both drop down and do the same thing. In fact, the Android OS has "Car Home," which presents the user with a simplified menu structure that is reminiscent of Phone 7 and can presumably be operated while driving.

But what is also overlooked in all this is that if all phones are going to become software-based, then there is zero reason not to push them to the max with more and more complex features. It's just software after all.

None of this bodes well, long-term, for Phone 7. It all seems like wishful thinking to me. But I wish them luck.

Windows 7 Rogue WiFi Hack

Windows 7′s popularity has raised its market share at a sky-high pace. Within 3 months of its official launch, it has crossed the Mac OS to capture 8% of the OS market.

A while back, we discussed that Windows 7 features a half-baked “SoftAP” feature, also called “virtual Wi-Fi,” that allows a PC to function as a Wi-Fi client and also as an Access Point (AP) a.k.a wireless router.

The idea is not new but, pretty nifty for sharing data, music, files with others other peers in absence of an actual AP. But often good features come with a backdoor. But it makes executions of certain nightmares handy, e.g.Visitors and parking-lot hackers can piggyback onto the user’s laptop and “ghost ride” into the corporate network, unnoticed.

The problem was first demonstrated at BlackHat by AirTight networks, a wireless intrusion-prevention system (WIPS). They first executed Rogue APs to fetch user’s frequently-connected Wifi, followed by how to make a wishful hacking on the victim’s machine.

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Gopinath KN, director of engineering at AirTight Networks, says a Windows 7 device performs Port Address Translation (PAT), allowing a single public IP address to be used by many LAN devices (and exposing only certain Layer 4 port numbers). So devices that associate with the Windows 7′s virtual AP will be bridged into the wired network unseen because they will be hidden behind the “master” IP address.

The issue is more dangerous than Wi-Fi’s peer-to-peer(ad hoc) mode. In peer-to-peer mode, the only data exposed is the local files and applications on participating users’ laptops — not the whole corporate network.

Remedy

WIPS products such as AirTight’s and those from competitors such as AirMagnet and AirDefense scan the airwaves for unauthorized devices in the airspace — such as a Windows 7 SoftAP — and flag them as rogues that clients are not permitted to associate with.

So using WIPS is one protective option. Another is to provision the laptop with the SoftAP capability turned off and deprive Windows 7 user’s admin rights, so that they can’t turn it back on.

Another way out is to install mobile device management, security agent software on the laptop that enforces centralized policies such as disabling soft APs and ad-hoc Wi-Fi modes. And AirTight, in addition to offering WIPS, also has such a client agent it calls SpectraGuard SAFE.

Microsoft Slams Google in EU Privacy Comments

Microsoft objects to Google's search-related business practices because Google locks in publishers and makes it hard for competing search engines to gain market share, not because of its popularity and competitive power, Microsoft said Friday.

Dave Heiner, vice president and deputy general counsel at Microsoft, released a blog post this afternoon in which he discussed the EU's decision to look into Google's search result rankings. He slammed Google for what he considered to be finger pointing at Microsoft over the investigation.

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"Google's public response to this growing regulatory concern has been to point elsewhere--at Microsoft," Heiner wrote. "Google is telling reporters that antitrust concerns about search are not real because some of the complaints come from one of its last remaining search competitors."

On Tuesday night, Google announced that European antitrust regulators are investigating whether Google intentionally buries search results that might promote its competitors. Three companies - Foundem, ejustice.fr, and Ciao from Bing - filed complaints with the EU over Google's rankings, said Julia Holtz, Google's senior competition counsel.

Foundem, which Google said is partly funded by Microsoft, and ejustice.fr are arguing that Google's algorithms demote their search results because they are a vertical search engine and, therefore, competitive with Google, Holtz said.

In regards to the third company, Ciao, Google suggested that the problems with them started after Microsoft acquired the company in 2008. Prior to that, Ciao was "a long-time AdSense partner of Google's, with whom we always had a good relationship," Holtz said. After Microsoft bought Ciao and re-branded it Ciao from Bing, Google "started receiving complaints about our standard terms and conditions."

In his blog post, Heiner did not address Microsoft's connection to the three companies, referring to them only as "upstart innovators."

UPDATE: A Microsoft spokesman e-mailed to say that the company does not directly fund Foundem. Microsoft partly funds the Initiative for a Competitive Online Marketplace (ICOMP), of which Foundem is a member, Microsoft said.

The real issue, Heiner said, is "whether Google's response really addresses the concerns that have been raised [because] complaints in competition law cases usually come from competitors."

Microsoft did not admit to being directly involved in filing the complaints against Google. Microsoft has heard complaints about Google over the years, Heiner said, and when those "antitrust concerns appear to be substantial, we suggest that firms talk to the competition law agencies."

Heiner acknowledged that Microsoft has talked with European investigators and the Department of Justice about Google, but only in the context of Microsoft's recently approved search deal with Yahoo.

"We told them what we know about how Google is doing business," Heiner wrote. "A lot of that entails explaining the search advertising business, which is complex. Some of that inevitably gets into Google practices that may be harming publishers, advertisers and competition in search and online advertising."

Specifically, Microsoft is concerned that "search and online advertising are increasingly controlled by a single firm, Google," Heiner said. "These and other network effects make it hard for competing search engines to catch up."

This is why Microsoft and Yahoo are combining their efforts, Heiner said. "And that is why we are concerned about Google business practices that tend to lock in publishers and advertisers and make it harder for Microsoft to gain search volume."

Heiner concluded by saying that "leading firms should not be punished for their success [or] because a particular business practice may harm a rival." They should face scrutiny, however, for practices that "exclude competitors, thereby undermining competition more broadly," he said.

Cisco Netranger sensor

Cisco?s Netranger is one product that is only available as an appliance. For this test Cisco was only able to source an older PII-based hardware platform, although the sensor software was up to date. We were also provided with the latest signature library.

Deployment is a rapid affair thanks to Cisco?s Policy Manager software. This stores policy information on a local machine and distributes settings when changed. This means expansion of the network or hardware replacements are simple to manage.

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As this can be overkill in a smaller network Cisco has developed a web interface for three sensors or less.

Inside the policy manager are the sensor options. Each has settings that govern the way it works, including the networks it monitors and whether to reassemble IP fragments or not ? worth doing, as crackers often fragment attacks to avoid IDS.

Next, a signature library has to be associated. This library defines which attacks should be looked for and the action to take when they?re found. Each signature can be manually modified with options including resetting or blocking the attack, and changing the priority level.

Attack reporting can be seen in the Event Viewer application. For the most part, it only generated one message per attack and at no point were we flooded with hundreds of alerts.

This can be further fine-tuned with the help of signature debug mode. This mode reports the number of packets that caused the event to trigger. In a production environment false negatives can be tuned out by upping the set value. Signatures can also be altered to only fire once in a given time period. This prevents the console being flooded in the event of an attack.

You can even write your own pattern-matching signature files which helps if you want to block a new attack or virus before the appropriate signature is released.

Our testing showed the system to be fast and accurate in its detection. We noticed the engine is better working with generic network attacks, and tends to miss out on backdoor and Trojan detection.


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