Microsoft 70-445 Q & A / Study Tools

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QUESTION 1
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package has the following features:
Two Data Flow tasks and two Control Flow tasks
A success constraint between each Data Flow task and the subsequent Control Flow task
The package uses one transaction for all the tasks.
You need to configure the package so that the two Data Flow tasks use their own transactions.
You also need to ensure that each Control Flow task is enlisted in the same transaction as its
preceding Data Flow task.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for the package.
B. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for the package.
C. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for each Data Flow task.
D. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for each Data Flow task.
E. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for each Control Flow task.
F. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for each Control Flow task.

Answer: A, D, E

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QUESTION 2
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. The
package contains 30 Data Flow tasks and 30 Control Flow tasks. The package runs slower than
expected. You need to capture the start time the finish time and the elapsed time for the
validation and execution of the package. What should you do?

A. Enable the OnProgress event handler and use the Control Flow tasks to write the information
to a log.
B. Monitor the Progress tab during the execution of the package, and then monitor the
Execution Results tab.
C. Use the Performance Monitor tool to capture the counters from the SQL Server SSIS Service
object. Analyze the output for the required information.
D. Use the Performance Monitor tool to capture the counters from the SQL Server: SSIS
Pipeline object. Analyze the output for the required information.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) is installed on your workstation. Microsoft
Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS) is not installed on your workstation.
You need to create a package that must meet the following requirements:
It must be transactional.
It must be optimized for 20 tables.
It must be stored securely in the msdb database of a remote server.
What should you do?

A. Create the package by using DTS Designer.
B. Create the package by using the Package Migration Wizard.
C. Create the package by using the Microsoft SQL Server Import and Export Wizard.
D. On the Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) menu, click the Create
Package submenu.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
While testing, a Transact-SQL user-defined function causes duplicate key values that stop the
transformation.
To permit the transformation to continue, the package must perform the following tasks:
1. Ascertain which rows are affected.
2. Insert the rows that fail into a table.
3. Continue with the process.
You need to change certain properties in the package to meet the requirements.
Which three tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. Choose the Redirect Row option for the Error property on the key column.
B. Choose the Ignore Failure option for the Error property on the key column.
C. Choose the Fail Component option for the Error property on the key column.
D. Add a DataReader source to use a new Data Flow destination when the Failure constraint is fired.
E. Add a DataReader source to use a new Data Flow destination when the Completion
constraint is fired.
F. Edit the Error Output properties for each DataReader source and configure each data source for error handling.

Answer: A, D, F

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QUESTION 5
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses at least one sequence container in one transaction. Each transaction controls
a Data Flow task and a Control Flow task. Each Data Flow task has a Success constraint.
The Control Flow task follows the Success constraint. The package must include the following
requirements:
Each Data Flow task must use its own transaction.
The Control Flow task and the Data Flow task that precedes it must succeed or fail as an atomic unit.
A restart point must restart each Data Flow task and the Control Flow task that follows it as an
atomic unit.
You need to make changes in the control flow designer to meet the outlined requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Add all the Data Flow tasks and the Control Flow tasks to one sequence container.
B. Add a sequence container for each Control Flow task and the Data Flow task that precedes it.
C. Change the FailPackageonFailure property to true for each new sequence container that is
added to the package.
D. Change the FailPackageonFailure property to false for each new sequence container that is
added to the package.

Answer: B, C

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QUESTION 6
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. An
Analysis Services Processing task in the package requires data from a file. The file is exported to
a file share.
If the file is not available on the file share, the Analysis Services Processing task must import data
from a remote Microsoft SQL Server 2005.
You need to add steps to the package to import the data.
What should you do?

Answer:

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QUESTION 7
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The OLE DB data source for the package is a database that is updated frequently.
You need to create a package that accomplishes the following tasks:
Implement the IRowsetFastLoad interface.
Support various data flow destinations.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Use an OLE DR data flow destination.
B. Use a Recordset data flow destination.
C. Use a DataReader data flow destination.
D. Create separate data flow destinations within the same Data Flow task.

Answer: A, D

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QUESTION 8
Your company's business intelligence (BI) model uses Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration
Services (SSIS). There are 20 packages that use the same configuration. The package
configuration is stored in an XML file as a variable.
You need to track the changes that affect a package that uses one variable. You also need to
modify the package to provide automatic notification by e-mail whenever there are changes to the
variable.
What should you do?

Answer:

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QUESTION 9
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package contains a single OLE DB data source. The package must be deployed on 10
servers. The package uses the XML configuration file to connect to a pre-assigned server.
You need to ensure that the package uses the correct server at runtime
What should you do?

Answer:

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QUESTION 10
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. The
package is named UpdateTable.dtsx and contains a variable named runlD. The package must
run by using the dtexec utility. The runlD variable must be set at runtime to a value of 5. You need
to meet the outlined requirements. What should you do?

A. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /SET
\packages.variables[runlD].Value;5.
B. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /SET \packages.variables.runlD=5.
C. Create a text file that specifies the variable name and value in the format
package.variables[runlD].Value = 5. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx"
/COM where is the name of the file you just created.
D. Create a text file that specifies the variable name and value in the format runlD=5. Execute
dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /COM where is the
name of the text file you just created.

Answer: A

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IBM 000-050 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
The list of test environments can be used for what purpose?

A. to automatically locate resources containing the specified environments
B. to automatically generate the actual test environments needed to run specific tests
C. to automatically select available machines during test execution
D. to automatically create unique test logs for each environment

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
In the Requirements section of the test plan, what happens when you click on the green plus sign icon?

A. A new requirement is added to the test plan.
B. An existing requirement is added to the test plan.
C. A requirement is imported into the test plan.
D. test case is created from the requirement.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
When generating a new test execution record from the Test Execution Record section of an open
test case, which tabs does the Advanced Properties link show?

A. One-way, Pair-wise, and Four-way Interaction
B. Test Plan, Test Suite, and Test Environment
C. Lab resources, Reservations, and Milestones
D. Inclusions, Exclusions, and Weightings

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Quality Objectives defined in the System Properties can be used in which sections of the test
plan?

A. Business Objectives, Test Objectives, and Quality Objectives
B. Business Objectives, Test Environments, and Quality Objectives
C. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Quality Objectives
D. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Business Objectives

Answer: C

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QUESTION 5
You can copy content from an external document and paste it into which sections of the test plan?

A. Summary, Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria
B. Summary, Pre-Condition, and Post-Condition
C. Summary, Quality Objectives, and Resources
D. Summary, Business Objectives, and Test Objectives

Answer: D

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QUESTION 6
Which Custom Reporting component stores the reports, data source connections, and server and
user preferences?

A. Data Warehouse
B. WebSphere Application Server
C. Framework Manager
D. Content Store

Answer: D

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QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about review processes?

A. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
B. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
C. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.
D. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 8
Who typically creates the test plan initially with Rational Quality Manager?

A. Test Lab Manager
B. Test Engineer
C. Test Manager
D. Project Manager

Answer: C

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QUESTION 9
What does the Platform Coverage tab of the Test Environments section show?

A. a list of platforms that will be supported for all test cases
B. a list of test execution records that will be generated for the test plan
C. a non-binding list of platforms the user plans to cover
D. a binding list of platforms that must be covered in the test plan

Answer: C

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QUESTION 10
Which three platforms are supported by the data warehouse server of IBM Rational Insight?
(Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
C. SUSE Linux
D. Red Hat Linux

Answer: A,B,D

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HP HP0-728 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
What is a Continuous Access EVA copy set?

A. a set of DR groups selected for the purpose of managing the groups
B. a group ofVdisks that transition to the same state simultaneously
C. a bound set of twoVdisks used for long distance replication
D. a set of two or more cluster nodes created as part of a stretch cluster

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
How should Vdisks for Continuous Access be preferred?

A. split theVdisk in the DR group between the controllers for load balancing
B. allVdisks in the DR group to the same controller
C. split theVdisk in the EVA between the controllers for load balancing
D. allVdisks in the same disk group to the same controller

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
The log disk collects host writes for _____.

A. managed sets
B. sourceVdisks
C. entire copy set
D. destinationVdisks

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Which two can be failed over during a Continuous Access EVA planned or unplanned event?
(Choose two.)

A. a single HSV controller
B. copy set
C. managed set
D. DR group

Answer: C,D

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QUESTION 5
Which two inputs does the Continuous Access EVA Replication Performance Estimator require?
(Choose two.)

A. one-wayintersite latency
B. throughput per second
C. two-wayintersite latency
D. size of a read data packet
E. size of the write data packet
F. number of IO’s per second

Answer: A,E

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QUESTION 6
A customer has a high availability Continuous Access EVA environment. All DR groups are set to
failsafe mode enabled. The source site array has a hardware failure and all DR groups are failed
over to the destination site. The hardware failure is then fixed.
Which two commands need to be set to restore normal operations at the source site? (Choose
two.)

A. failback
B. suspend
C. failsafe mode enable
D. resume
E. failover

Answer: C,E

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QUESTION 7
Where is the Business Copy (BC) server component installed in the diagram?

A. Storage Management Appliance (Node 1)
B. storage array
C. host (Node 2)
D. desktop with web browser

Answer: A

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QUESTION 8
In Continuous Access EVA, which statement is true?

A. Synchronous mode allows for more data loss than asynchronous mode.
B. A copy set’s mode is set to synchronous/asynchronous mode.
C. All copy sets within a DR group are either synchronous or asynchronous.
D. Asynchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to
the sourceVdisk and destination Vdisk.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 9
You are creating a DR group for a database.
Which disk group is used for the write history log for the database DR group?

A. 3 TB database disk group with 1 TB of free space
B. an empty disk group with 2 TB of space
C. a new disk group will get created for the log disk
D. 5 TB windows disk group with 2 TB of occupied space

Answer: D

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QUESTION 10
CORRECT TEXT
Which icon denotes a failed-over DR group?

Answer: B

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640-816 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?
(Choose three.)

A. authentication
B. VLAN support
C. compression
D. multilink support

Answer: A,C,D

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QUESTION 2
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the
information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?


A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
C. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network
D. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

Answer: A

Explanation:
As can be seen above, the hello interval for R1 has been set to 5 seconds, while it is set to 10 for
R2. Also, the dead interval on R1 is set at 20 seconds while on router CKD2 it is set to 40 seconds.
In order for two routers to establish an OSPF neigh adjacency, the hello and dead timers must
match.

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QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are
shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?


A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)


A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by2950Switch.
C. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
D. All frames arriving on2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky
addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to
restrict a port's ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into
the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the
number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device
attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with
static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with
sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.
If you enter a write memory or copy running- config startup- config command, then port security
with sticky MAC addresses saves dynamically learned MAC addresses in the startup- config file
and the port does not have to learn addresses from ingress traffic after bootup or a restart.
Since the maximum number of MAC addresses has been configured to 1, only host A will be able
to send frames on interface fa 0/1, making choice C correct.

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QUESTION 5
A university has a small campus in which 25 faculty members are located. The faculty offices and
student computers are currently on the same network. The faculty are concerned about students
being able to capture packets going across the network and obtain sensitive material. In order to
protect faculty network traffic from student connections ,which action will you take?

A. Remove the student computers from the network and put them on a peer-to-peer network.
B. Put the faculty computers in a separate VLAN.
C. Power down the switches that connect to faculty computers when they are not in use.
D. Install anti-virus software on the student computers.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 6
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as dual-stack routing.

A. False
B. True

Answer: B

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QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to
VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding
switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were
attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes
as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located
on the same LAN segment.
Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network
based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical
or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup
can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or
interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead
of physically relocating devices.
Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP
subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is
routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger
network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later.
A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches.
Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast , multicast, and broadcast
traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports
belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will
normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.

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QUESTION 8
Which technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?


A. EIGRP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. ARP

Answer: C

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QUESTION 9
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three)

Sw-AC3#show int trunk


A. Fa0/1
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/12
D. Fa0/3

Answer: B,C,D

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QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet
access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this
task, what command should be used?

A. access-list 101 denyip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any

Answer: D

Explanation:
Only choice specifies the correct TCT port and wildcard mask, and uses a valid access list
number.
Incorrect Answers:
A: IP is specified as the protocol, when it should be TCP.
B: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.
C: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.

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QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30


A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP
domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server
mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP
information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be
advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive
updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added
to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here's a hint: if
you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN
information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still
forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and
delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.
Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local
VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other
switch.

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QUESTION 12
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-andspoke
Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured
between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need
to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?


A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25subnetworks so that at least two bits are
borrowed from the last octet.
B. Configure the noip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links toR2
and R3.
D. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 13
An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from
reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will
accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?


A. denytcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permitip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permitip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
D. denytcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Answer: A

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QUESTION 14
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They can enhance network security.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They simplify switch administration.
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple, smaller LANs. This can be used to enhance
security as local traffic from one VLAN will not be passed to users in other VLANS.

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QUESTION 15
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Answer: C

Explanation:
You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying
MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC
addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the
group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a
single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of
the port.
If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is
reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of
the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure
MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a
violation is flagged.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps628/products_configuration_guide_chapter0
9186a00800d6a38.html#86378

Facebook vs. Google+ vs. Twitter vs. LinkedIn

Facebook and Twitter continue their momentum, while LinkedIn and Google Plus show there is plenty of social networking to go around

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Much has changed since we examined the ongoing war between Facebook and Twitter in the spring of 2010. The stakes are higher, the competition has increased, and we see LinkedIn and Google roaring into the social networking arena like never before.

A year and a half ago, you might have thought the reverse would have happened - that Facebook and/or Twitter would have crushed any remaining competitors and that would be the end of it.

Instead, what happened was that LinkedIn and Google were able to find unfilled niches, and we now have four different major social networks, each with its own specialty, but with major overlaps.

LinkedIn was always around, but in recent months it has stepped up its efforts to be more relevant to its users. These efforts appear to be successful, with monthly unique visitors rising more than 80% to 23.8 million, according to Compete.

LinkedIn's niche is its business focus. More than Facebook and Twitter, it's still the place you go to build your virtual Rolodex. You post your resume there and you can see others' resumes. If you belong to any groups, they are likely related to your job focus. (Plug: Network World's LinkedIn group)

So what accounts for the rise? LinkedIn ratcheted up its efforts on sharing news. Now, the most-shared news gets delivered to your email inbox via newsletters, or you can seek out the news on LinkedIn's site. The key differentiator for LinkedIn is not the personal factor (that's Facebook), or the immediacy factor (that's Twitter). Instead, LinkedIn's goal is to bring you content that is most relevant to whatever industry you are in.

Anonymity vs. real names on social networks

Last of the big four is Google+, and it is the wildest wild card here. There was tremendous excitement when Google was sending out select invitations earlier this year. Everyone saw huge potential, and everyone wanted to be a part of this next big thing. In September, Google+ launched to the general public, and Compete says its unique visitors hit 13.4 million in that month alone. Google is now saying it has 40 million signed up, and it is shutting down a more halfhearted effort, Buzz.

However, the backlash is already happening, with anecdotal evidence suggesting that people - including Google CEO Larry Page - are using Google+ less now than they did initially. Industry watchers are saying it's no Facebook and never will be. Even a Google engineer publicly called Google+ "pathetic" (though he didn't mean to be so public about it).

And yet, you can't count Google out. Google remains the most-visited site on the Web. Page recently said, if I may paraphrase, you ain't seen nothin' yet. He indicated that the real value of Google+ is yet to come, with even more relevance in your search results and your ads. The identity you create with Google+, wittingly or unwittingly, will inform your overall Google experience. Google will be all up in your stuff in ways you never dreamed possible.
Which social network would you use more?
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Will users choose one of these four over the other three? The answer may be different for each user. You may have a favorite. That favorite may change over time. But most people will probably have their fingers in two or more of these sites at any one time. For now, these four social network providers have proven that there is enough interest to go around.

Cisco plans free telepresence client

PC and Mac users will be able to join a meeting with an e-mail invitation and a download

IDG News Service - Cisco Systems is taking several steps to extend its TelePresence videoconferencing technology beyond enterprise meeting rooms, introducing two endpoints and a free client application for ad hoc participants to download.

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To mark the fifth anniversary of its introduction of TelePresence, Cisco previewed several new offerings during a press event held Tuesday at its TelePresence proving ground in San Jose, California. The products are due to be announced Wednesday. At the event, Cisco emphasized that its videoconferencing technology is becoming more accessible, five years after the company unveiled the three-screen TelePresence 3000 room system then priced at nearly $300,000 per room.

"TelePresence is no longer restricted to the boardroom. It is now ... wanted everywhere," said Jacob Nordan, director of product management in Cisco's Infrastructure Business Unit, who joined the meeting from Oslo via TelePresence. Cisco's emphasis echoes what analysts and other vendors have said over the past year, focusing on the growth potential for desktop and mobile videoconferencing.

At the event, the company unveiled Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence, a free application designed to let just about anyone with a PC or Mac join a TelePresence session. An enterprise or small business with an in-house or hosted TelePresence capability can go to a globally accessible website and create an invitation that goes out to customers, partners or other participants via e-mail. The participants will receive an e-mail with a link to download the Jabber Video software and join the meeting.

Jabber Video for TelePresence is going into beta testing soon and is expected to become generally available early next year, said Gina Clark, vice president and general manager of the TelePresence Cloud business unit. It currently is an English-language product but people all over the world will be able to download it, she said.

Cisco also introduced the MX300, a new model in its line of value-priced TelePresence endpoints for small and medium-size businesses. The MX300 is a step up from the MX200 introduced earlier this year, featuring a 55-inch (139.7 centimeters) display compared with the MX200's 42-inch. The new unit can deliver videoconferences at 1080p resolution and 30 frames per second and is suitable for as many as nine people in a room, Cisco said. The unit is designed to be set up in less than 15 minutes. It is scheduled to hit the market in January for a list price of $27,600.

Also on Tuesday, the company announced the Cisco TelePresence VX Clinical Assistant. This endpoint is designed for use in medical applications, including remote patient consultations and medical education. The VX is set to go on sale in the first quarter of next year in the U.S. and Europe, starting at $29,500.

642-436 Exam

QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)

A. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they
support voice or video.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
D. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
E. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.

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Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?

A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice packets carry their own signaling.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Examine the example output.
hostname GW1
!
interface Ethernet 0/0
ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0
h323-gateway voip interface
h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2
h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1
h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1
!
dial-peer voice 1 voip
destination-pattern 1212.
session-target ras
!
dial-peer voice 2 pots
destination-pattern2125551212
no register e164
!
end
Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.

A. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions would be initiated by a UAS? (Choose two.)


A. Contacts the user when a SIP invitation is received
B. Originates the REFER method to initiate call termination
C. Returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator
D. Originates the INVITE method including a description of the session parameters
E. Originates the ACK method to indicate that it has received a response to an invitation

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 5
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?

A. Acts only as a recorder of call details
B. Provides only call signaling and call setup
C. Manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. Monitors the quality of each call after setup

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and
the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?

A. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the
call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
D. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command
first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones are SCCP phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone G.
Which call setup signaling statement is true?


A. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
D. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup
signaling statement is correct?


A. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
B. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
C. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
D. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.
E. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the
setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.

Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Three department managers share the directory number 3000. The
Marketing manager's phone is attached to port 1/1. The Engineering manager's phone is attached
to port 1/2. The Shipping manager's phone is attached to port 1/3. In which situation would an
incoming call ring on the Shipping manager's phone?


A. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
B. None of the managers are on the phone.
C. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.

Answer: E

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to
implement COR? (Choose four.)



Answer:



Explanation: