Thursday, December 8, 2011

Microsoft 70-526 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS001 as developing collateral. You have
received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot
be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the
form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms
Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is
presenting Certkingdom.com's logo.
What action should you take?

A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show
that only the base form can modify the control.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form
and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.


QUESTION 2
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just
included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to
Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is
working, and learnt that it does not allow the Certkingdom.com users to change the
selected time.
What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the Certkingdom.com uses
to change the selected time?

A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set
it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down
control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True
the users can select the time.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox
should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox
control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.


QUESTION 3
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS001 as developing collateral. The manager of
Certkingdom.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the
exhibit.

When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon
area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed.
Which of the following code segments should be used?

A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;

Answer: A

Explanation:
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the
transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond
to the mouse.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the
background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be
transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want
the background to be transparent.


QUESTION 4
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral.
You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the
form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and
anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A Certkingdom.com manager wants
the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You
need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column?
How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?

A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child
controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space.
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of
pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the
Width property to 100F.


QUESTION 5
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added
a SplitContainer control named CertkingdomSplitContainer to a form. You then left the
control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer
control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.
Which of the following code segments should you use?

A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
Panel rightPanel = [Panel] CertkingdomSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
Panel rightPanel = [Panel] CertkingdomSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
CertkingdomSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
CertkingdomSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];

Answer: D

Explanation:
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a
movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are
created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so
it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the
PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl
method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control
given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to
return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer
control.


QUESTION 6
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to
develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be
used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named
testbrowser is added to the control to a form named CertkingdomForm, which is define
as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public CertkingdomForm : Form
{
public CertkingdomForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function
to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam,
which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];
What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of CertkingdomForm is called
when the JavaScrip function is carry out?

A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the
current instance of the CertkingdomForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current
instance of the CertkingdomForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser
instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser
instance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the
current instance of the CertkingdomForm class.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an
HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model
event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM
documents.


QUESTION 7
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS003 as developing collateral. You have
received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically
loaded images.
Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?

A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be
displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load
dynamically fails.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the
control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while
the other one is loading.


QUESTION 8
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You are
developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a
Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component
named Certkingdomnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is
available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5
seconds.

Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users
click the balloon tip?

A. Certkingdomnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
Certkingdomnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
Certkingdom.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
Certkingdom.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
Certkingdom.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. Certkingdomnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
Certkingdom.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
Certkingdom.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
Certkingdom.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
ToolTipIcon.Info];
Certkingdom.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}

Answer: A

Explanation:
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the
event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user
clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you
have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon
is clicked and not the balloon tip.


QUESTION 9
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy
adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named
testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's
display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job
menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second
one is Run Job.
Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?

A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];

Answer: C

Explanation:
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property
of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance,
which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container
for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the
ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.


QUESTION 10
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy
with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.
What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the
ContextMenuStrip control?

A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the
Controls collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the
ContextMeniStrip control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance
as a parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to
the Items collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the
Controls collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the
ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance
as a parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the
collection of the ToolStripControlHost instance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu
item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the
parameter to the constructor.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you
cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.

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Wednesday, December 7, 2011

Microsoft 70-447 - Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
You work as DBA at Certkingdom.com. You administer two Windows Server 2003
computers named Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B. You install SQL Server 2005 on both
Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B to host a new company database. Certkingdom A hosts a
read-write copy of the company database in which all changes are made. Certkingdom B
subscribes to a publication on Certkingdom A and is only used for reporting. A Windows
domain administrator provides you with a domain user account named SQLSRV to use as
the security context for the SQL Server services. A password policy of 42 days exists in
the Default Domain Group Policy object (GPO). You install the database on Certkingdom A
and Certkingdom B and configure replication. Everything works fine for six weeks, but then
all SQL Server services fail. You need to correct the problem. What should you do?

A. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the Log on as service right to the
SQLSRV domain user account.
B. Configure the SQLSRV domain user account with a new strong password. Configure
the new password in the properties of each SQL Server service that failed.
C. Create a local user account on Certkingdom A named Certkingdom A and a local user account
on Certkingdom B named Certkingdom B. Configure Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B to run under the
context of the appropriate local user account.
D. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the SQLSRV domain user account
membership in the Domain Admins group.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Default Domain Group Policy object requires that passwords are
changed every 42 days. In order to correct this problem you have to change the
password in the Active Directory AND configure the new password on both you
SQL Servers to the newly changed password.


QUESTION 2
You are a database administrator of two SQL Server 2005 computers named Certkingdom A
and Certkingdom B. You have a Microsoft .NET application that has been modified so that it
now accesses a database on Certkingdom B in addition to Certkingdom A. You do not want the
user application to connect directly to Certkingdom B. You need to enable the data retrieval
from Certkingdom B while maintaining the ability to assign different permissions to different
users who use the .NET application. What should you do?

A. Change the .NET application to define a new server connection to Certkingdom B.
B. Configure a linked server on Certkingdom A to point to Certkingdom B.
C. Change the stored procedures called by the .NET application to include the
OPENXML command.
D. Configure a linked server on Certkingdom B to point to Certkingdom A.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SQL Server lets you access external data sources from your local
Transact-SQL code. You need to define a linked server for each external data
source you want to access and then configure the security context under which your
distributed queries will run. After you create a linked server, you can use the
Transact-SQL OPENQUERY function to execute your distributed queries.


QUESTION 3
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. Your company uses a different
company's application that is based on SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition. The
application executes a query that uses an index query hint. The index query hint is not
suitable for your environment, but you cannot modify the query. You need to force the
application to use a different query execution plan. What should you do?

A. Create a plan guide for the query.
B. Clear the procedure cache.
C. Create a new covering index on the columns that the query uses.
D. Update the statistics for all of the indexes that the query uses.

Answer: A
Over the past few years, Microsoft SQL Server has increased its
presence in the industry and has reduced its TCO. This reduced TCO is a direct
result, primarily, of the numerous self-tuning mechanisms built into Microsoft(r)
SQL Server. These mechanisms automatically perform tasks that would otherwise
have to be performed by experienced database administrators. One such
mechanism is the cost-based optimizer (CBO) that is used to dynamically generate
query execution plans. The CBO probes several system-wide resource states and
employs many complex, heuristical algorithms to generate the best possible plan for
a given query and the underlying table and index structures. This mechanism works
well for the vast majority of user queries, but there are times when experienced
users need to force a particular query plan, based on some prior knowledge or
insights into future uses.


QUESTION 4
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. Your SQL Server 2005 computer
contains one user database that holds sales transaction information. Users report that the
queries and stored procedures that they use every day are taking progressively longer to
execute. You also notice that the amount of free disk space on the SQL Server computer
is decreasing. You need to create a maintenance plan to correct the performance and
storage problems. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Check Database Integrity option.
B. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Reorganize Index option.
C. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Shrink Database option.
D. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Clean Up History option.
E. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Execute SQL Server Agent Job
option.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
When you indexes are not heavily fragmented you can reorganize
indexes, which uses few system resources and runs automatically online. In SQL
Server 2005, certain operations such as large delete operations or -one-time data
loads might leave database files larger than they need to be. SQL Server 2005
enables a DBA to shrink each file within a database to remove unused pages and
regain disk space.


QUESTION 5
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You are responsible for a SQL
Server 2005 database that has several indexes. You need to write a stored procedure that
checks the indexes for fragmentation. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

A. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
C. SELECT * FROM sys.indexes
D. DBCC DBREINDEX

Answer: B

Explanation:
The index_physical_stats function takes five parameters: database_id,
object_id, index_id, partition_id, and mode. This function returns row size and
fragmentation information.


QUESTION 6
You work as DBA at Certkingdom.com. You administer two SQL Server 2005 computers
named Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B. Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B contain a copy of a
database named Sales. The database is replicated between Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B by
using transactional replication. A full backup of each database is performed every night.
Transaction log backups are performed every hour. Replication latency is typically less
than two minutes. One afternoon, the Sales database on Certkingdom A becomes corrupted.
You are unable to repair the database. The Sales database on Certkingdom B is unaffected.
You need to return the Sales database on Certkingdom A to normal operation as quickly as
possible. You must ensure a minimum loss of data and minimal impact to users of either
server. What should you do?

A. Perform a full database backup on Certkingdom B. Restore the backup to Certkingdom A.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup and all transaction logs made since the
full backup was made.
C. Restore only the most recent transaction log backup.
D. Detach the Sales database on Certkingdom B. Copy the database file to Certkingdom A, and
attach the database on both servers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Detaching the database will not apply to the minimal impact on users
as it will be offline during copy. Restoring only the latest transaction log will not
give you a working database and restoring last full backup and all transaction logs
after that will not apply to the restore normal operations as quickly as possible part
of the requirements.


QUESTION 7
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. The company runs a popular
database-driven Web site against a SQL Server 2005 computer named Certkingdom B. You
need to ensure a quick response time and appropriate audit trail in the event that
Certkingdom B experiences excessive traffic due to denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Which
two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Configure the new performance alert to start a SQL Server Profiler trace.
B. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Current Bandwidth counter.
C. Configure the new performance alert to start a Network Monitor capture.
D. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Bytes Total/sec counter.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Using alerts, System Monitor tracks specific events and notifies you of
these events as requested. An alert log can monitor the current performance of
selected counters and instances for objects in SQL Server. When a counter exceeds
a given value, the log records the date and time of the event. An event can also
generate a network alert. Characteristic for a typical DoS attack is a large number
of Bytes/sec. Characteristic for a DDoS attack is also a large number of Bytes/sec
but also a large number of connections made from a large number of hosts.


QUESTION 8
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. One of the databases on a SQL
Server 2005 computer contains a stored procedure. Users run this stored procedure to
import data into a table. The stored procedure needs to use the TRUNCATE TABLE
command before importing new data into the table. However, the users who run the
stored procedure do not have permission to truncate the table. You need to provide a way
for the stored procedure to truncate the table before it imports new data. What should you
do?

A. Configure the stored procedure to use the EXECUTE AS command.
B. Configure the stored procedure to be owned by the same database user as the table.
C. Assign the users DELETE permission in the table.
D. Add the users to the db_datawriter fixed database role.

Answer: A

Explanation:
In SQL Server 2005 you can implicitly define the execution context of
the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions),
procedures, queues, and triggers. By specifying the context in which the module is
executed, you can control which user account the SQL Server 2005 Database Engine
uses to validate permissions on objects that are referenced by the module. This
provides additional flexibility and control in managing permissions across the object
chain that exists between user-defined modules and the objects referenced by those
modules. Permissions must be granted to users only on the module itself, without
having to grant them explicit permissions on the referenced objects. Only the user
that the module is running as must have permissions on the objects accessed by the
module.
Syntax:
Functions (except inline table-valued functions), Stored Procedures, and DML Triggers
{ EXEC | EXECUTE } AS { CALLER | SELF | OWNER | 'user_name' }


QUESTION 9
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You have separate SQL Server 2005
development and production environments. You use the Business Intelligence
Development Studio to create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package in your
development environment. Then, you use the SSIS package to import data into your
development environment from one of your company's trading partners. You need to
deploy the SSIS package to your production environment. Your production environment
uses different table names than your development environment. What should you do?

A. Save the SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to a file. Copy the file to the
production server. Configure the SSIS package on the production server to use the new
file.
B. Back up the master database and restore it to the production server. Rename the
appropriate tables inside the master database.
C. Create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration. Build a
deployment utility. Copy the deployment folder for your SSIS project to your production
server. Execute the manifest file.
D. Back up the msdb database and restore it to the production server. Rename the
appropriate tables inside the msdb database.

Answer: C

Explanation:
You have to use a SSIS package to accomplish this but you can not use
the package built for your development environment as the table names differ.


QUESTION 10
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You notice that one of the data files
on a SQL Server 2005 computer is corrupted. You need to restore the database from the
most recent set of backups. You want to perform this task as quickly as possible, with a
minimum loss of data. What should you do first?

A. Restore the most recent transaction log backup.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup.
C. Perform a full database backup.
D. Perform a transaction log backup.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to restore from the most recent set of backups, you have to
first ensure that you can restore all transactions that have occurred between the
time of the backup and the time when the database went corrupt. In order to
accomplish this you should backup the transaction log.

MCTS Certification, MCITP Certification

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Exams with Life Time Access Membership at http://www.actualkey.com

Tuesday, December 6, 2011

Microsoft 70-445 Q & A / Study Tools


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QUESTION
1
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package has the following features:
Two Data Flow tasks and two Control Flow tasks
A success constraint between each Data Flow task and the subsequent Control Flow task
The package uses one transaction for all the tasks.
You need to configure the package so that the two Data Flow tasks use their own transactions.
You also need to ensure that each Control Flow task is enlisted in the same transaction as its
preceding Data Flow task.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for the package.
B. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for the package.
C. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for each Data Flow task.
D. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for each Data Flow task.
E. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for each Control Flow task.
F. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for each Control Flow task.

Answer: A, D, E



QUESTION
2
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. The
package contains 30 Data Flow tasks and 30 Control Flow tasks. The package runs slower than
expected. You need to capture the start time the finish time and the elapsed time for the
validation and execution of the package. What should you do?

A. Enable the OnProgress event handler and use the Control Flow tasks to write the information
to a log.
B. Monitor the Progress tab during the execution of the package, and then monitor the
Execution Results tab.
C. Use the Performance Monitor tool to capture the counters from the SQL Server SSIS Service
object. Analyze the output for the required information.
D. Use the Performance Monitor tool to capture the counters from the SQL Server: SSIS
Pipeline object. Analyze the output for the required information.

Answer: B



QUESTION
3
Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) is installed on your workstation. Microsoft
Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS) is not installed on your workstation.
You need to create a package that must meet the following requirements:
It must be transactional.
It must be optimized for 20 tables.
It must be stored securely in the msdb database of a remote server.
What should you do?

A. Create the package by using DTS Designer.
B. Create the package by using the Package Migration Wizard.
C. Create the package by using the Microsoft SQL Server Import and Export Wizard.
D. On the Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) menu, click the Create
Package submenu.

Answer: C



QUESTION
4
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
While testing, a Transact-SQL user-defined function causes duplicate key values that stop the
transformation.
To permit the transformation to continue, the package must perform the following tasks:
1. Ascertain which rows are affected.
2. Insert the rows that fail into a table.
3. Continue with the process.
You need to change certain properties in the package to meet the requirements.
Which three tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. Choose the Redirect Row option for the Error property on the key column.
B. Choose the Ignore Failure option for the Error property on the key column.
C. Choose the Fail Component option for the Error property on the key column.
D. Add a DataReader source to use a new Data Flow destination when the Failure constraint is fired.
E. Add a DataReader source to use a new Data Flow destination when the Completion
constraint is fired.
F. Edit the Error Output properties for each DataReader source and configure each data source for error handling.

Answer: A, D, F



QUESTION
5
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses at least one sequence container in one transaction. Each transaction controls
a Data Flow task and a Control Flow task. Each Data Flow task has a Success constraint.
The Control Flow task follows the Success constraint. The package must include the following
requirements:
Each Data Flow task must use its own transaction.
The Control Flow task and the Data Flow task that precedes it must succeed or fail as an atomic unit.
A restart point must restart each Data Flow task and the Control Flow task that follows it as an
atomic unit.
You need to make changes in the control flow designer to meet the outlined requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Add all the Data Flow tasks and the Control Flow tasks to one sequence container.
B. Add a sequence container for each Control Flow task and the Data Flow task that precedes it.
C. Change the FailPackageonFailure property to true for each new sequence container that is
added to the package.
D. Change the FailPackageonFailure property to false for each new sequence container that is
added to the package.

Answer: B, C



QUESTION
6
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. An
Analysis Services Processing task in the package requires data from a file. The file is exported to
a file share.
If the file is not available on the file share, the Analysis Services Processing task must import data
from a remote Microsoft SQL Server 2005.
You need to add steps to the package to import the data.
What should you do?



Answer:



QUESTION
7
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The OLE DB data source for the package is a database that is updated frequently.
You need to create a package that accomplishes the following tasks:
Implement the IRowsetFastLoad interface.
Support various data flow destinations.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Use an OLE DR data flow destination.
B. Use a Recordset data flow destination.
C. Use a DataReader data flow destination.
D. Create separate data flow destinations within the same Data Flow task.

Answer: A, D



QUESTION
8
Your company's business intelligence (BI) model uses Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration
Services (SSIS). There are 20 packages that use the same configuration. The package
configuration is stored in an XML file as a variable.
You need to track the changes that affect a package that uses one variable. You also need to
modify the package to provide automatic notification by e-mail whenever there are changes to the
variable.
What should you do?

Answer:



QUESTION
9
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package contains a single OLE DB data source. The package must be deployed on 10
servers. The package uses the XML configuration file to connect to a pre-assigned server.
You need to ensure that the package uses the correct server at runtime
What should you do?



Answer:



QUESTION
10
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. The
package is named UpdateTable.dtsx and contains a variable named runlD. The package must
run by using the dtexec utility. The runlD variable must be set at runtime to a value of 5. You need
to meet the outlined requirements. What should you do?

A. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /SET
\packages.variables[runlD].Value;5.
B. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /SET \packages.variables.runlD=5.
C. Create a text file that specifies the variable name and value in the format
package.variables[runlD].Value = 5. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx"
/COM where is the name of the file you just created.
D. Create a text file that specifies the variable name and value in the format runlD=5. Execute
dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /COM where is the
name of the text file you just created.

Answer: A

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Sunday, December 4, 2011

IBM 000-050 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
The list of test environments can be used for what purpose?

A. to automatically locate resources containing the specified environments
B. to automatically generate the actual test environments needed to run specific tests
C. to automatically select available machines during test execution
D. to automatically create unique test logs for each environment

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
In the Requirements section of the test plan, what happens when you click on the green plus sign icon?

A. A new requirement is added to the test plan.
B. An existing requirement is added to the test plan.
C. A requirement is imported into the test plan.
D. test case is created from the requirement.

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
When generating a new test execution record from the Test Execution Record section of an open
test case, which tabs does the Advanced Properties link show?

A. One-way, Pair-wise, and Four-way Interaction
B. Test Plan, Test Suite, and Test Environment
C. Lab resources, Reservations, and Milestones
D. Inclusions, Exclusions, and Weightings

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Quality Objectives defined in the System Properties can be used in which sections of the test
plan?

A. Business Objectives, Test Objectives, and Quality Objectives
B. Business Objectives, Test Environments, and Quality Objectives
C. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Quality Objectives
D. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Business Objectives

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You can copy content from an external document and paste it into which sections of the test plan?

A. Summary, Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria
B. Summary, Pre-Condition, and Post-Condition
C. Summary, Quality Objectives, and Resources
D. Summary, Business Objectives, and Test Objectives

Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which Custom Reporting component stores the reports, data source connections, and server and
user preferences?

A. Data Warehouse
B. WebSphere Application Server
C. Framework Manager
D. Content Store

Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about review processes?

A. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
B. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
C. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.
D. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.

Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Who typically creates the test plan initially with Rational Quality Manager?

A. Test Lab Manager
B. Test Engineer
C. Test Manager
D. Project Manager

Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What does the Platform Coverage tab of the Test Environments section show?

A. a list of platforms that will be supported for all test cases
B. a list of test execution records that will be generated for the test plan
C. a non-binding list of platforms the user plans to cover
D. a binding list of platforms that must be covered in the test plan

Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which three platforms are supported by the data warehouse server of IBM Rational Insight?
(Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
C. SUSE Linux
D. Red Hat Linux

Answer: A,B,D



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Saturday, December 3, 2011

HP HP0-728 Q & A / Study Guide

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QUESTION 1
What is a Continuous Access EVA copy set?

A. a set of DR groups selected for the purpose of managing the groups
B. a group ofVdisks that transition to the same state simultaneously
C. a bound set of twoVdisks used for long distance replication
D. a set of two or more cluster nodes created as part of a stretch cluster

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
How should Vdisks for Continuous Access be preferred?

A. split theVdisk in the DR group between the controllers for load balancing
B. allVdisks in the DR group to the same controller
C. split theVdisk in the EVA between the controllers for load balancing
D. allVdisks in the same disk group to the same controller

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
The log disk collects host writes for _____.

A. managed sets
B. sourceVdisks
C. entire copy set
D. destinationVdisks

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which two can be failed over during a Continuous Access EVA planned or unplanned event?
(Choose two.)

A. a single HSV controller
B. copy set
C. managed set
D. DR group

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 5
Which two inputs does the Continuous Access EVA Replication Performance Estimator require?
(Choose two.)

A. one-wayintersite latency
B. throughput per second
C. two-wayintersite latency
D. size of a read data packet
E. size of the write data packet
F. number of IO’s per second

Answer: A,E


QUESTION 6
A customer has a high availability Continuous Access EVA environment. All DR groups are set to
failsafe mode enabled. The source site array has a hardware failure and all DR groups are failed
over to the destination site. The hardware failure is then fixed.
Which two commands need to be set to restore normal operations at the source site? (Choose
two.)

A. failback
B. suspend
C. failsafe mode enable
D. resume
E. failover

Answer: C,E


QUESTION 7
Where is the Business Copy (BC) server component installed in the diagram?

A. Storage Management Appliance (Node 1)
B. storage array
C. host (Node 2)
D. desktop with web browser

Answer: A


QUESTION 8
In Continuous Access EVA, which statement is true?

A. Synchronous mode allows for more data loss than asynchronous mode.
B. A copy set’s mode is set to synchronous/asynchronous mode.
C. All copy sets within a DR group are either synchronous or asynchronous.
D. Asynchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to
the sourceVdisk and destination Vdisk.

Answer: C


QUESTION 9
You are creating a DR group for a database.
Which disk group is used for the write history log for the database DR group?

A. 3 TB database disk group with 1 TB of free space
B. an empty disk group with 2 TB of space
C. a new disk group will get created for the log disk
D. 5 TB windows disk group with 2 TB of occupied space

Answer: D


QUESTION 10
CORRECT TEXT
Which icon denotes a failed-over DR group?

Answer: B

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Wednesday, November 16, 2011

640-816 Q & A / Study Guide


QUESTION 1
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?
(Choose three.)

A. authentication
B. VLAN support
C. compression
D. multilink support

Answer: A,C,D


QUESTION 2
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the
information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?


A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
C. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network
D. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

Answer: A

Explanation:
As can be seen above, the hello interval for R1 has been set to 5 seconds, while it is set to 10 for
R2. Also, the dead interval on R1 is set at 20 seconds while on router CKD2 it is set to 40 seconds.
In order for two routers to establish an OSPF neigh adjacency, the hello and dead timers must
match.


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are
shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?


A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)


A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by2950Switch.
C. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
D. All frames arriving on2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky
addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to
restrict a port's ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into
the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the
number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device
attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with
static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with
sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.
If you enter a write memory or copy running- config startup- config command, then port security
with sticky MAC addresses saves dynamically learned MAC addresses in the startup- config file
and the port does not have to learn addresses from ingress traffic after bootup or a restart.
Since the maximum number of MAC addresses has been configured to 1, only host A will be able
to send frames on interface fa 0/1, making choice C correct.


QUESTION 5
A university has a small campus in which 25 faculty members are located. The faculty offices and
student computers are currently on the same network. The faculty are concerned about students
being able to capture packets going across the network and obtain sensitive material. In order to
protect faculty network traffic from student connections ,which action will you take?

A. Remove the student computers from the network and put them on a peer-to-peer network.
B. Put the faculty computers in a separate VLAN.
C. Power down the switches that connect to faculty computers when they are not in use.
D. Install anti-virus software on the student computers.

Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as dual-stack routing.

A. False
B. True

Answer: B


QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to
VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding
switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were
attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes
as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located
on the same LAN segment.
Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network
based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical
or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup
can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or
interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead
of physically relocating devices.
Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP
subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is
routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger
network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later.
A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches.
Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast , multicast, and broadcast
traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports
belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will
normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.


QUESTION 8
Which technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?


A. EIGRP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. ARP

Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three)

Sw-AC3#show int trunk


A. Fa0/1
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/12
D. Fa0/3

Answer: B,C,D


QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet
access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this
task, what command should be used?

A. access-list 101 denyip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any

Answer: D

Explanation:
Only choice specifies the correct TCT port and wildcard mask, and uses a valid access list
number.
Incorrect Answers:
A: IP is specified as the protocol, when it should be TCP.
B: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.
C: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30


A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP
domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server
mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP
information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be
advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive
updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added
to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here's a hint: if
you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN
information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still
forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and
delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.
Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local
VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other
switch.


QUESTION 12
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-andspoke
Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured
between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need
to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?


A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25subnetworks so that at least two bits are
borrowed from the last octet.
B. Configure the noip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links toR2
and R3.
D. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.

Answer: C


QUESTION 13
An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from
reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will
accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?


A. denytcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permitip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permitip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
D. denytcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They can enhance network security.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They simplify switch administration.
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple, smaller LANs. This can be used to enhance
security as local traffic from one VLAN will not be passed to users in other VLANS.


QUESTION 15
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Answer: C

Explanation:
You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying
MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC
addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the
group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a
single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of
the port.
If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is
reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of
the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure
MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a
violation is flagged.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps628/products_configuration_guide_chapter0
9186a00800d6a38.html#86378

Monday, November 14, 2011

Facebook vs. Google+ vs. Twitter vs. LinkedIn

Facebook and Twitter continue their momentum, while LinkedIn and Google Plus show there is plenty of social networking to go around

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Much has changed since we examined the ongoing war between Facebook and Twitter in the spring of 2010. The stakes are higher, the competition has increased, and we see LinkedIn and Google roaring into the social networking arena like never before.

A year and a half ago, you might have thought the reverse would have happened - that Facebook and/or Twitter would have crushed any remaining competitors and that would be the end of it.

Instead, what happened was that LinkedIn and Google were able to find unfilled niches, and we now have four different major social networks, each with its own specialty, but with major overlaps.

LinkedIn was always around, but in recent months it has stepped up its efforts to be more relevant to its users. These efforts appear to be successful, with monthly unique visitors rising more than 80% to 23.8 million, according to Compete.

LinkedIn's niche is its business focus. More than Facebook and Twitter, it's still the place you go to build your virtual Rolodex. You post your resume there and you can see others' resumes. If you belong to any groups, they are likely related to your job focus. (Plug: Network World's LinkedIn group)

So what accounts for the rise? LinkedIn ratcheted up its efforts on sharing news. Now, the most-shared news gets delivered to your email inbox via newsletters, or you can seek out the news on LinkedIn's site. The key differentiator for LinkedIn is not the personal factor (that's Facebook), or the immediacy factor (that's Twitter). Instead, LinkedIn's goal is to bring you content that is most relevant to whatever industry you are in.

Anonymity vs. real names on social networks

Last of the big four is Google+, and it is the wildest wild card here. There was tremendous excitement when Google was sending out select invitations earlier this year. Everyone saw huge potential, and everyone wanted to be a part of this next big thing. In September, Google+ launched to the general public, and Compete says its unique visitors hit 13.4 million in that month alone. Google is now saying it has 40 million signed up, and it is shutting down a more halfhearted effort, Buzz.

However, the backlash is already happening, with anecdotal evidence suggesting that people - including Google CEO Larry Page - are using Google+ less now than they did initially. Industry watchers are saying it's no Facebook and never will be. Even a Google engineer publicly called Google+ "pathetic" (though he didn't mean to be so public about it).

And yet, you can't count Google out. Google remains the most-visited site on the Web. Page recently said, if I may paraphrase, you ain't seen nothin' yet. He indicated that the real value of Google+ is yet to come, with even more relevance in your search results and your ads. The identity you create with Google+, wittingly or unwittingly, will inform your overall Google experience. Google will be all up in your stuff in ways you never dreamed possible.
Which social network would you use more?
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Will users choose one of these four over the other three? The answer may be different for each user. You may have a favorite. That favorite may change over time. But most people will probably have their fingers in two or more of these sites at any one time. For now, these four social network providers have proven that there is enough interest to go around.